Arminius said:Webdog saith:
Nice attempt as SHIFTING. I did not say "Scripture stating man has "free will", I said Freewill or Free-will is a Bible term, and "Sovereignty of God" is not. I am correct, and you are not. Now you are trying to shift it to certain definitions. Nice try, but first you need to hubmly ADMIT that freewill IS IN FACT a Bible term. That would be basic honesty.
Then we can discuss the meanings of "freewill", free and will! It will be amusing to see you stumble all over these plain words and the concepts they communicate. You really must have a problem with Lev 1:2, where God Himself says man has his "own voluntary will"! Try and escape that Divine utterance! Tell us how OWN and voluntary DO NOT MEAN man has HIS OWN will apart from God, and can obey or disobey accordingly. I'm all ears.
GE:
This time I am falling in into a thread I haven't followed from the beginning (had not time).
But what I see here, to me seems rubbish straight away.
First I have looked over and over at "Lev 1:2", and could observe no-"where God Himself says man has his "own voluntary will"!" I cannot fathom how one might be expected to "Try and escape that Divine utterance!"
Somebody somehow is -- what shall I say? -- confused.
Arminius:
". . . Tell us how OWN and voluntary DO NOT MEAN man has HIS OWN will apart from God, and can obey or disobey accordingly. I'm all ears"
GE:
Very easy! You've said it yourself:
". . . apart from God . . .";
But NOT, ". . . can obey or disobey accordingly ...", because "accordingly", i.e., "apart from God", "man", "can" NOT, "obey". For certain not!
And, "accordingly", i.e., "apart from God", "man", "can" but "disobey" - no matter what!