The Father Attests to the Deity of Jesus Christ

[SavedByGrace]

John 6:27, “Labour not for the food which perishes, but for that food which endures unto everlasting life, which the Son of Man shall give unto you: for Him has God the Father sealed.” (common reading)

The ending of this verse is very interesting in the Greek, which I find to be a clear testimony to the Deity of The Lord Jesus Christ, as “attested” to by God the Father. The order of the words in the Greek are very important, and cannot be weakened from a direct Testimony of the Deity of Jesus Christ, by God the Father.

In the Greek it reads: τουτον γαρ ο πατηρ εσφραγισεν ο θεος,

literally, “for Him the Father attested the God”.

The Old Latin (2nd century) and Latin Vulgate (4th), reads: “Hunc enim Pater signavit Deus” Literally, “For Him the Father attested God”. Unlike the Greek, Latin does not have the definite article (the), so the translator or reader must supply this. In which case, the Latin can also read, “For Him the Father attested the God”.

“for him hath God the Father sealed” (KJV)

“because God the Father has set His seal of approval on Him." (HCSB)

“For God the Father has put his seal of approval on him." (NET)

“for him did the Father seal -- even God” (YLT)

For the reading of the KJV, and those that follow this, or similar, the Greek is against it. For John to have meant this, he would have written, “τουτον γαρ ο θεος ο πατηρ εσφραγισεν”.

Versions like the HCSB, NET, are here paraphrasing what the Greek actually says.

Young’s translation supposes that “καὶ” is present before “ο θεος”, but this is not the case. We can see this from 2 Thessalonians 2:16, “και ο θεος και ὁ πατὴρ”, where the English is, “and of God even the Father”.

It should not surprise anyone of God the Father “attesting” to the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ. In Hebrew 1:8, we have God the Father in direct address to Jesus Christ, where He says: “προς δε τον υιον ο θρονος σου ο θεος εις τον αιωνα του αιωνος”, literally, “concerning the Son: Your Throne O God, is for the ages to the ages”. In this example, we have the nominative used for the vocative, in a direct address, as the Father attesting to the Son, that He is Almighty God. Note the definite article in the Greek, “ο θεος” (the God).

 

[Yeshua1]

John 6:27, “Labour not for the food which perishes, but for that food which endures unto everlasting life, which the Son of Man shall give unto you: for Him has God the Father sealed.” (common reading)

The ending of this verse is very interesting in the Greek, which I find to be a clear testimony to the Deity of The Lord Jesus Christ, as “attested” to by God the Father. The order of the words in the Greek are very important, and cannot be weakened from a direct Testimony of the Deity of Jesus Christ, by God the Father.

In the Greek it reads: τουτον γαρ ο πατηρ εσφραγισεν ο θεος,

literally, “for Him the Father attested the God”.

The Old Latin (2nd century) and Latin Vulgate (4th), reads: “Hunc enim Pater signavit Deus” Literally, “For Him the Father attested God”. Unlike the Greek, Latin does not have the definite article (the), so the translator or reader must supply this. In which case, the Latin can also read, “For Him the Father attested the God”.

“for him hath God the Father sealed” (KJV)

“because God the Father has set His seal of approval on Him." (HCSB)

“For God the Father has put his seal of approval on him." (NET)

“for him did the Father seal -- even God” (YLT)

For the reading of the KJV, and those that follow this, or similar, the Greek is against it. For John to have meant this, he would have written, “τουτον γαρ ο θεος ο πατηρ εσφραγισεν”.

Versions like the HCSB, NET, are here paraphrasing what the Greek actually says.

Young’s translation supposes that “καὶ” is present before “ο θεος”, but this is not the case. We can see this from 2 Thessalonians 2:16, “και ο θεος και ὁ πατὴρ”, where the English is, “and of God even the Father”.

It should not surprise anyone of God the Father “attesting” to the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ. In Hebrew 1:8, we have God the Father in direct address to Jesus Christ, where He says: “προς δε τον υιον ο θρονος σου ο θεος εις τον αιωνα του αιωνος”, literally, “concerning the Son: Your Throne O God, is for the ages to the ages”. In this example, we have the nominative used for the vocative, in a direct address, as the Father attesting to the Son, that He is Almighty God. Note the definite article in the Greek, “ο θεος” (the God).

Interesting that the Father testified to Jesus at His water Baptism, and at Mount of transfiguration!

 

[SavedByGrace]

Interesting that the Father testified to Jesus at His water Baptism, and at Mount of transfiguration!

Indeed, but here as ο θεος!

 

[Yeshua1]

Indeed, but here as ο θεος!

Which makes no sense if one not a Trinitarian!

 

[SavedByGrace]

Which makes no sense if one not a Trinitarian!

yes, which is futher seen from the distinction in the Persons, "τουτον γαρ ο πατηρ εσφραγισεν ο θεος", where ο θεος refers to ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου. John could not have written this, had the Godhead been "unipersonal"!

 

[Yeshua1]

yes, which is futher seen from the distinction in the Persons, "τουτον γαρ ο πατηρ εσφραγισεν ο θεος", where ο θεος refers to ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου. John could not have written this, had the Godhead been "unipersonal"!

John constructed His prologue to let us know that Jesus is also Yahweh, but that he and the Father are not same Person, so attacked Unitarians, Modualists, and Oneness in one passage!

 

[SavedByGrace]

John constructed His prologue to let us know that Jesus is also Yahweh, but that he and the Father are not same Person, so attacked Unitarians, Modualists, and Oneness in one passage!

very true! Interesting also is John 10:30, "ἐγὼ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἕν ἐσμεν", where the literal English is, "I and The Father one We are". Had John written "ἐγὼ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ εἷς ἐσμεν", with the masculine "εἷς", instead of the neuter "ἕν", this would have meant that "the Two are One and the same Person"! Likewise, in John 1:1, John could only have written, "καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος", and not, as the JW's and others wrongly argue, that had John wished to show the Word as "God", then he would have written, "καὶ θεὸς ὁ ἦν ὁ λόγος". This would be abusurd, as he has just said, "καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν", where the Greek preposition here, "πρὸς" shows a distinction is meant between ὁ λόγος and τὸν θεόν. If John did wish to show that The Word and God (the Father) here are One and the same Person, then not only would have had to written, "καὶ θεὸς ὁ ἦν ὁ λόγος", but, in the previous clause, the preposition "πρὸς" would been replaced by "ἐν". The Greek here as elsewhere, is very precise!

 

[Yeshua1]

very true! Interesting also is John 10:30, "ἐγὼ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἕν ἐσμεν", where the literal English is, "I and The Father one We are". Had John written "ἐγὼ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ εἷς ἐσμεν", with the masculine "εἷς", instead of the neuter "ἕν", this would have meant that "the Two are One and the same Person"! Likewise, in John 1:1, John could only have written, "καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος", and not, as the JW's and others wrongly argue, that had John wished to show the Word as "God", then he would have written, "καὶ θεὸς ὁ ἦν ὁ λόγος". This would be abusurd, as he has just said, "καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν", where the Greek preposition here, "πρὸς" shows a distinction is meant between ὁ λόγος and τὸν θεόν. If John did wish to show that The Word and God (the Father) here are One and the same Person, then not only would have had to written, "καὶ θεὸς ὁ ἦν ὁ λόγος", but, in the previous clause, the preposition "πρὸς" would been replaced by "ἐν". The Greek here as elsewhere, is very precise!

Yes, as the JW and Unitarians cannot use John to support that Jesus was and is just a "god"

 

[SavedByGrace]

Yes, as the JW and Unitarians cannot use John to support that Jesus was and is just a "god"

Nor divine

 

[Yeshua1]

Nor divine

Angels are divine, Jesus is God

 

[SavedByGrace]

Angels are divine, Jesus is God

James Moffatt New Teatament: "THE Logos existed in the very beginning, the Logos was with God, the Logos was divine"

Edgar Goodspeed New Testament: "In the beginning the Word existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was divine"

John wrote θεὸς, and not θεὶὸς

 

[Yeshua1]

James Moffatt New Teatament: "THE Logos existed in the very beginning, the Logos was with God, the Logos was divine"

Edgar Goodspeed New Testament: "In the beginning the Word existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was divine"

John wrote θεὸς, and not θεὶὸς

Yes, Deity, not divine!