Here are the typical questions used to defend a mistaken view of the Good News.
If Christ ransomed all mankind, why is all mankind not saved?
If He was purchased all mankind, why is all mankind not purchased for God?
If God is propitiated towards all men, what does He still have against them?
If all men have been redeemed, why is there no redemption for all men?
If God is reconciled to all men, why is there no reconciliation for all sinners?
If only those placed in Christ are saved, what is the criteria for being so placed?
Why are those so placed not purchased (ransomed), redeemed, and reconciled?
Let us assume these questions are not simply an effort to deny truth, but an earnest effort to understand a very different understanding of the two steps God takes separately to bring the lost into His kingdom.
Was the result of God ransoming mankind the salvation of mankind? No, of course not. What was the result? Christ became the propitiation or means of salvation for the whole world., all of humanity.
Mankind was purchased, both those saved or to be saved, and those never to be saved. Christ's Substitutionary Sacrifice ransomed, purchased, bought, and put mankind under the New Covenant rather than the Old Covenant.
God was not propitiated toward any person when Christ died, but is propitiated toward those He has put spiritually into Christ. Thus the Gospel two step is (1) Christ became the means of salvation when He gave His life as a ransom for all, and (2) God chooses believers whose faith He credits as righteousness, and puts them spiritually into Christ.
Does this mean all people had been redeemed? Nope. All people have been bought, ransomed, but not redeemed which refers to being transferred out of the realm of darkness into Christ's spiritual body.
Does scripture say all mankind has been reconciled? Nope. God is reconciling humanity one sinner at a time when He transfers them into Christ.
Did I "refuse to say" what the criterion is for putting someone in Christ. No. I said over and over If God credits a person's faith in the Truth as righteousness, then He puts them in Christ.
If a person has been put into Christ, God has been propitiated toward that individual.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have been redeemed.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have come to Christ.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have been given to Christ.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have been justified.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have been made righteous.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have been made alive together with Christ.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have been predestined to adoption, the redemption of their bodies.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have been saved from the penalty of sin, positional sanctification.
Propitiation = means of salvation
Redemption = act of salvation, the transfer into Christ.
Reconciliation = the result of salvation, being at one with God.
If Christ ransomed all mankind, why is all mankind not saved?
If He was purchased all mankind, why is all mankind not purchased for God?
If God is propitiated towards all men, what does He still have against them?
If all men have been redeemed, why is there no redemption for all men?
If God is reconciled to all men, why is there no reconciliation for all sinners?
If only those placed in Christ are saved, what is the criteria for being so placed?
Why are those so placed not purchased (ransomed), redeemed, and reconciled?
Let us assume these questions are not simply an effort to deny truth, but an earnest effort to understand a very different understanding of the two steps God takes separately to bring the lost into His kingdom.
Was the result of God ransoming mankind the salvation of mankind? No, of course not. What was the result? Christ became the propitiation or means of salvation for the whole world., all of humanity.
Mankind was purchased, both those saved or to be saved, and those never to be saved. Christ's Substitutionary Sacrifice ransomed, purchased, bought, and put mankind under the New Covenant rather than the Old Covenant.
God was not propitiated toward any person when Christ died, but is propitiated toward those He has put spiritually into Christ. Thus the Gospel two step is (1) Christ became the means of salvation when He gave His life as a ransom for all, and (2) God chooses believers whose faith He credits as righteousness, and puts them spiritually into Christ.
Does this mean all people had been redeemed? Nope. All people have been bought, ransomed, but not redeemed which refers to being transferred out of the realm of darkness into Christ's spiritual body.
Does scripture say all mankind has been reconciled? Nope. God is reconciling humanity one sinner at a time when He transfers them into Christ.
Did I "refuse to say" what the criterion is for putting someone in Christ. No. I said over and over If God credits a person's faith in the Truth as righteousness, then He puts them in Christ.
If a person has been put into Christ, God has been propitiated toward that individual.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have been redeemed.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have come to Christ.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have been given to Christ.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have been justified.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have been made righteous.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have been made alive together with Christ.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have been predestined to adoption, the redemption of their bodies.
If a person has been put into Christ, they have been saved from the penalty of sin, positional sanctification.
Propitiation = means of salvation
Redemption = act of salvation, the transfer into Christ.
Reconciliation = the result of salvation, being at one with God.
