It is clearly logical to you, Matt, but I'm afraid not to me. Here are some possible meanings of your objection that occur to me. Are any of them correct, or do you mean something I haven't thought of?
1. Maybe you think that the passage about the Bereans searching the scriptures cannot apply to the subject under discussion, because they did not have the New Testament.
2. Perhaps you thought that because I said that the
Bereans only had the Old Testament, I was saying that we too should only use the Old Testament. (If so, I must assure that I did not mean that).
3. Could it be that you believe the Bereans already had at least part of the New Testament?
I stress again that all I meant was that, for people living at the time of those Bereans, the only Scriptures they could have searched would have been the Old Testament. The verse I quoted was Acts 17.11:
11 These were more fair–minded than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness, and searched the Scriptures daily to find out whether these things were so.
If we want to know what "these things" were, we only need to look back at Acts 17.1-3:
1 ¶ Now when they had passed through Amphipolis and Apollonia, they came to Thessalonica, where there was a synagogue of the Jews.
2 Then Paul, as his custom was, went in to them, and for three Sabbaths reasoned with them from the Scriptures,
3 explaining and demonstrating that the Christ had to suffer and rise again from the dead, and saying, "This Jesus whom I preach to you is the Christ."
Paul reasoned with the Jews from the Old Testament Scriptures, the New having not yet been written, concerning the person, the death and the resurrection of the Lord Jesus Christ.
I have no desire at all to be "nit-picking". I'm just trying to understand what you meant.
Incidentally, I should add that I agree with what you wrote in reply to Chemnitz.