The Supposed James 2 problem

The book of James is written MORE from a practical point of view rather than a THEOLOGICAL point of view - that is one basic difference between Paul's book of Romans chapters 1-12 and the book of James as a whole.

Secondly, James seems to be writing primarily to early churches that are primarily Jewish in membership, at least the majority, and therefore most likely written to the churches in Judea and Samaria or those churches referred to in Act 9:30.

Thirdly, James section on justification is just another item in a list of items that James deals with throughout the book. The book of James was not written primarily to deal with or define soteriology and especially the doctrine of justification. It is rather breifly dealt with in passing.

Fourth, James section on Justification is limited to one portion of one chapter not consisting over 13 verses (2:14-26) whereas, Paul deals with the doctrine of justification explicitly in Romans 3:10-5:1 and Galatians 2:16-3:11 with the sole design to define and defend it.

The supposed problem of James 2:14-26 is simply a failure to consider the particulars that James spells out in no uncertain terms. Here is the text:

14 ¶ What doth it profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him?
15 If a brother or sister be naked, and destitute of daily food,
16 And one of you say unto them, Depart in peace, be ye warmed and filled; notwithstanding ye give them not those things which are needful to the body; what doth it profit?
17 Even so faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone.
18 Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works.
19 Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble.
20 But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead?
21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?
22 Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?
23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.
24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
25 Likewise also was not Rahab the harlot justified by works, when she had received the messengers, and had sent them out another way?
26 For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also.


First, Begin where James begins! Where does james begin? Does he begin vertical between the justified and God "before God" as Paul does (Rom. 2:19-20; 4:1) or does he begin horizontal between profession toward men as James does? Here is the question that many simply choose to ignore because it does not serve their purpose for this text. Let's see;

14 ¶ What doth it profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him?
15 If a brother or sister be naked, and destitute of daily food,
16 And one of you say unto them, Depart in peace, be ye warmed and filled; notwithstanding ye give them not those things which are needful to the body; what doth it profit?
17 Even so faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone.
18 Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works.

James is dealing with the PROFESSION of justification and its relationship to men by profession without action toward men that vindicates it. Is it not the ACTION toward men that James places before the reader as the VISIBLE evidence of real justifing faith rather than mere proffesion toward men? He is not dealing with the POSSESSION of justification and its relationship to God by faith as is Paul.

Note the illustration first given by James (v. 15-16) as a horizontal application designed to define the visible evidence of true justification before the court of HUMAN OBSERVATION instead of mere lip service or what they "say." Many reading this post will simply pass over this and ignore it because it does not serve their purpose for this text.

Some at this point are saying, well, what about verses 19-20, why don't you deal with those verses! Tell me, how shall we deal with them? Shall we deal with then in contradiction to the horizontal context of illustrations just stated in verses 17-18 or shall we deal with them by jumping from that context into a VERTICAL context no where stated or illustrated? Shall we depart from illustrations that obviously are designed to TEST the profession of justification before men by actions toward men rather than just words or shall we jerk it out of context and force it into a vertical context between the professor and God???? Here is where exegesis turns into eisgesis for those who suppose there is a problem between James and Paul. They simply refuse to recognize the different contexts and different applications by Paul and James.

Here are the verses:

19 Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble.
20 But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead?

Who is James addressing in verse 19? Is it not the one who has failed in the court of human observation, meaning, they have said much but done nothing TOWARD MEN?????? Come on, be honest with the text and preceding context. Don't worry about the verses that follow until we get to them!!

What is "that faith" he refers to in verse 20 by context? Is it not the PROFESSION OF FAITH he has just illustrated in verses 17-18? The faith that only makes a PROFESSION TOWARD MEN but is WITHOUT ACTIONS TOWARD MEN! James identifies "works" as the visible evidence of true justification rather than mere lip service in the COURT OF HUMAN OBSERVATION not "before God" but before men. Come on, be honest! It is "that" kind of faith without the visible EVIDENCE of works before men that is like the faith of demons and which is dead.

Furthermore, he is not talking about happenstance events but rather something that is CHARACTERISTIC of "that" faith as illustrated in verses 17-18. He uses the PRESENT TENSE of progressive continuous action.

We will stop right here as that is enough to chew on before we go on to the illustrations given to distinguish between real geniune profession of faith versus "that" kind of faith.

 

I have established that James 2:14-20 is dealing with justifying faith not "before God" but before men. James is giving his readers PRACTICAL instruction concerning the visible evidence of true justifying faith - it is not what they say alone but it is what accompanies their profession in the form of "works." This is CHARACTERISTIC progressive linear evidence that the COURT OF HUMAN OBSERVATION is to use to determine the true from the false professor.

James has provided a NEGATIVE illustration to bring his point home in the persons of demons. Now, he turns to those POSITIVE illustrations that all his readers can verify in the scriptures to support why only works accompanying profession is the evidence of determining true from false in the court of HUMAN OBSERVATION. Remember, James is not providing God with visible evidence to determine true from false but he is providing his readers with practical visible evidence to judge the nature of profession of faith.


1. Abraham

21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?
22 Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?
23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.
24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.

First, ask yourself who it is that james is addressing? Is he addressing God or his readers - professed Christians? What is he calling on them to do? Look at their hearts as God does or "SEEST THOU" and "YE SEE" the works as the VISIBLE EVIDENCE of genuine profession of faith?

Now consider this example in Abraham. It is an example that all his readers can "see" as it is written in the scriptures to see. Therefore, it is a VISIBLE written illustration provided for the COURT OF HUMAN OBSERVATION in the Word of God open to everyone to "see."

Second, in this visible written illustraton there are others noted in the context that also observed these works by Abraham. There was his Son who saw them all. There was his servant that went with them and no doubt heard the story as did all the family - as it was verbally passed down to Moses by someone!

Finally, James is not teaching that this specific event with these specific works which happened years after Abraham was justified is what justified Abraham BEFORE GOD, but rather it is these works and all the other works he did recorded in the scriptures that give VISIBLE WRITTEN EVIDENCE he was a truely justified man before God in the horizontal sight of men. This later specific set of works "fulfilled" the early declaration of justification in the sense of VISIBLE VERIFICATION not that they were instrumental in obtain VERTICAL justification before God as that occurred years previously.

Now note the beginning statement of the last verse. "Do YOU SEE"! He is not asking if GOD SEES but if YOU SEE. What is there to SEE and why should they look for that? Answer - Because james is defining works as the VISIBLE EVIDENCE that they should LOOK FOR in order to vindicate the profession of faith in the cour of HUMAN OBSERVATION!

We will stop here and continue in a later post.

 

Rahab the Harlot

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24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
25 Likewise also was not Rahab the harlot justified by works, when she had received the messengers, and had sent them out another way?

"Likewise" Rahab is a visible written illustration for all to "see" in the scriptures that illustrates James point that profession of faith is verified in the court of human observation by the visible evidence of works.

Note again the words "YOU SEE"! Again, who is James addressing? God or his readers? Who needs to "see" the distinction between a false profession and a true profession? God or his readers????

Furthermore, this visible evidence of profession was seen by the two spies. It was then later seen by all of Israel as they marched around Jericho and saw the bright crimson rope hanging from her window.

Neither the illustration of Abraham or Rahab contradict one single word of Paul and especially his words that a man is justified by faith "without works" before God as works are merely the following EVIDENCE not the basis for justification.

"We are his workmanship created in Christ Jesus UNTO good works...." - Eph. 2:10

 

26 For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also.

Now, many of you were eager to get to this verse. You want to take this verse and completely overthrow the whole preceding context of VISIBLE EVIDENCE for a true profession in the court of HUMAN OBSERVATION. You would like to purge the preceding context of the "to me...to thee....you see....see then" characterization of this practical advice given by James for use in the court of human observation as evidence of justification by faith. No, you would want to make works the basis rather than mere evidence for justification and this is your proof text for that isn't it?

However, again, let us approach this text consistently with how James has approached every statement and every illustration thus far. He is not addressing God but addressing his human readers and providing something they can once again SEE with their own eyes. Few have not seen with their own eyes a dead corpse. Many have seen a person or animal die and the most visible evidence is when you see the chest stop moving - no more wind or breath, no more air being pushed in and out by the lungs.

The term "spirit" is the Greek term "pnema" and is translated elsewhere "wind" or "breath" and that is precisely the meaning here. Works are comparable to the breath or wind that you can see in a living being and what is visibly absent in a dead corpse. It is the visible evidence of a living body. So, likewise, works are the visible evidence of a living faith.

What is the first visible evidence you look for (not feel for) when you are looking at a body to see if it is alive? Is it not breathing as the motion in the chest area. Now we can all hold our breath for a period of time. A person can stop breathng for some minutes periodically. However, any body that is CHARACTERISTICALLY without breath and chest movement is dead. Works are presented again as the VISIBLE EVIDENCE to vindicate the profession of faith in the court of HUMAN OBSERVATION.

 

The point James is making is NOT that the body without SOME breath is dead but the body WITHOUT any breath is dead.

Anyone can stop breathing for moments and still be alive. However, no one can stop breathing altogether so as to be "without" breath and be alive.

James has been talking about "that" kind of faith comparable to demons. Demons are wholly WITHOUT righteous works altogether.

James has given an example of a poor person who is needing clothing and food and the professor offers NONE - zilch - nada.

All Christians have period where no visible good works can be seen. However, no true Christian continues WITHOUT good works altogether. This is what james is talking about and how works are the visible evidence of a true profession in the court of human observation. They do not procure justification or faith, nor are they they the basis for justification but they are the visible evidence of justification and therefore the evidence of the profession of justification by faith in the court of HUMAN OBSERVATION.

 

Summary of James 2 and Justification​

1. This is a practical guide for his readers to be able to discern between profession and possession of true justifying faith.

2. Hence, this passage is characterized by HORIZONTAL language - "shew me...shew thee...."

3. Hence, this passage deals with the court of HUMAN OBSERVATION "Do you see...see then...."

4. This passage deals with "that" faith which is completely "without works" - meaning without any good works whatsoever; (1) as in the illustration in verses 16-17; (2) as in the case of demons; (3) as in the absence of all breath from a body. This is not about justifying faith that is sometimes missing works.

5. This passage is desgned by james to equip his readers with the knowledge to discern in a practical way the differnence between mere lip service and true justifying faith and "works" are designated as the practical visible evidence they are instructed to look for and use to make this distinction.

6. hence, James states "faith without works is dead" does not contradict Paul's statement that we are "justified without works."

a. James is speaking in the court of human observation while Paul is speaking in the court of Divine observation

b. James is speaking about works as the SUBSEQUENT VISIBLE EVIDENCE that demonstrates the reality of profession versus mere lip service while Paul is speaking about the basis for justification before God.

Hence, works are essential to vindicate your profession in the court of human observation and they are essential evidence of true justification (Eph. 2:10). However, it is just as essential that the basis for justification before God be "without works" altogether as the basis for justification before God is only the Person and works of Jesus Christ. Hence, faith in Christ obtains the state of justification before God whereas works obtain the recognition of that state before the court of human observation. It is only mere lip profession without any good works whatsoever that is to be regarded as dead as "that" kind of faith is equal to the faith of demons.

 

I respectfully disagree with your analysis. He is not generically asking if faith can save anyone. He first defines what kind of faith he is asking about - a faith that hath no works in attendance or a faith that produces no works. Geninue faith produces works (Eph. 2:10). However, it is not that kind of faith he asks about. He is asking if a faith void of evidential works is the kind that is saving. This is the kind of faith he continues to illustrate - a faith void of all works. Nowhere, does he define the basis of justification before God but in nearly every verse he is addressing mere lip service that claims to be saving faith BEFORE MEN. However, your interpretation gives credence to those who deny that "faith" can be the basis of justification without works as you present it James question to be in regard to genuine faith. James is not talking about genuine faith but about a FRUITLESS faith. Genuine faith is not fruitless but it is not the fruit of faith or even faith itself that justifies anyone - IT IS THE OBJECT OF THAT FAITH!!!!

Second, everything a person does is before God but that is not the focus of james as the focus of james is strictly horizontal and dealing with works as the visible evidence of genuine faith. In his illustration of Abraham he is not asking if God saw it, but rather if his readers can "see" it! Works "fulfilled" it not in the sight of God as God did not need any proof of what was in Abraham's heart. Moreover, in God's sight, Abraham was justified years before. Are you suggesting that God was left in the dark until Genesis 22??????? I don't think so or else God could not have made the assertion that he was justified before Him in Genesis 15!!!! Are you suggesting that there was no manifestation of that faith in the life of Abrham before God between Genesis 15 to Genesis 22????? I don't think you have a case here at all. What James is pointing to is something VISIBLE to the READER of Genesis not something visible to God. Abraham was already fully justified before God in Genesis 11 as the past tense verbs in Genesis 12:1-3 prove. Genesis 15 also points back to that specific time in Genesis 11 as a completed action (perfect tense). However, Genesis 22 was the FIRST VISIBLE TEST of His faith and therefore the first reference point to present a case from the perspective of the reader that Abraham's faith gave evidence of its genuiness before men and obviously before God but it is not God that needed the evidence.

 

What classifies one faith different in kind from another kind of faith is the characteristics the writer uses to describe it.

For example, Paul in 1 Cor. 15:10-16 describes the characteristics of what he would label as a "dead" faith. Surely, that is not the KIND of faith that justifies or saves anyone.

James is from the very beginning providing characteristics of a "faith" that he condemns rather than condones by the label of a "dead" faith.

All one has to do is define the characteristics and ask if that "faith" is Biblical faith? If it does not have the Biblical characteristics it is not the same in Kind.

For example, James provides three basic characteristics of the faith he is condemning and labeling as a dead faith:

1. It is mere profession as lip service without works - v. 14
2. It is mere profession as lip service without love - vv. 15-17
3. It is mere profession as lip service without allegience to God - v. 18

Other Bible translations understand James to be distinguishing a kind or such a faith distinct from the Biblical kind in regard to justification:

14 ¶ What does it profit, my brothers, if someone says he has faith but does not have works? Is that kind of faith able to save him? - English Majority Text Version

14 ¶ What doth it profit, my brethren, if a man say he hath faith, but have not works? can that faith save him? - English Revised Version

14 ¶ What is the profit, my brethren, if faith, any one may speak of having, and works he may not have? is that faith able to save him? - Youngs Literal Translation

14 ¶ what good is it, my brethren, if a man professes to have faith, and yet his actions do not correspond? can such faith save him? - Weymouth Version

The idea of "kind" is necessarily essential if there are more than one type of faith characteristically in scripture distinguished from true Biblical faith:

1. Vain faith - 1 Cor 15
2. Dead faith - James 2
3. Living faith - Heb. 11

It is obvious that james is not speaking of the same kind of faith throughout the text because he contrasting a "faith" that he labels as "dead" with a faith that is not dead, a faith that is mere profession with a faith that is more than mere profession.

You are right that he uses the same term "faith" throughout but he does not use it in the same context or with the same characteristics throughout but contrasts it between different contextual characteristics.

See, even you must admit that the characteristic "lively" that defines the word "faith" is not the same kind as mere, though "genuine intellectual assent alone" when attached to the term "faith". When such contrasting characteristics are attached to the same word it cannot be referring to the same KIND of faith as the contrasting characteristics demands another type/kind that james lables as the "dead" kind rather than the "lively" kind.

 

Your explanation makes no sense. You are trying to define a limited characteristic "intellectual assent" as Biblical faith and yet at the same time define it as an incomplete faith. It can't be both and yet be faith. This is what happens when you play intellectual gynastics. Even James recognizes this and so gives it the label of "dead" faith to distinguish it as a KIND of faith from lively faith.

There is a fundemental error in your basic definition of faith. Faith is not merely intellectual assent, although it certainly includes that. Faith that is characteristic of justification in the Bible is first and foremost perception by revelation of the gospel that not only encompasses the mind but the heart and then energized by the power of the Spirit of God in regard to the will of man so that it is God which worketh in you "both to will and to do of His good pleasure (Philip. 1:29; 2:13) and that is precisely why it is called a "lively" faith. Saving faith is a "gift" of God (philip. 1:29; Eph. 2:10) and is "the work of God" (Jn. 6:29)and originates with a new heart given by God that can perceive and understand and embrace truth (Deut. 4:29; 29:4; Ezek. 36:26-27 with Romans 10:10; 2 Cor. 4:6). Jesus is its author and Jesus is its finisher (Heb. 12:2) and the Holy Spirit is its sustainer in between the time it is authored and finished (Philip. 1:6; 2:13).

 

No! James introduces this as merely profession by one man to another man (v. 14). It is in the court of human observation that his profession is either justified or condemned by the characteristics James supplies to define "dead" from living faith.

James does not call upon God to justify that profession. James does not call upon the professor to have God justify his faith. This is strictly a horizontal court of justification or condemnation.

James does not call upon God to "see" anything nor does he call upon the professor to "shew" God anything.

James never says "before God" about anything in this context. When he makes reference to Abraham and Rahab he calls upon the reader to "see" not for God to either "see" or to justify anyone.

This is your commentary but not James. James does not say one word about being "before God".

Neither is it evidence by which God will judge the saints as they already have been judged in Christ and "shall not come into condemnation" (Jn. 5:24). Instead, works are the basis for God to judge his saints for rewards but never to determine "who are truly in Christ" because He already knows His sheep and does not need to make such a determination to know who is who (Jn. 10:28-29).

 

Thank you. I now know your theological bias that you bring to the table in this discussion. You simply do not believe the Biblical doctrine of justication by grace.

You are wrong about James 2:14 and that it is brought before God. He is not asking God if faith can save. He is asking his readers and his readers are not God. He is bringing this question before human readers not before God.

14 ¶ What doth it profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him?

However, you could care less who it is addressed to as your theological bias cannot permit you to be in error at this point because if you are in error here your whole house of interpretative cards come falling down around and humpty dumpy has a big fall and no one can put him back together again.

However, the FACT is that verse 14 is not addressed to God, but is directly and explicitly addressed to the HORIZONTAL court of human opinion "MY BRETHREN." - case closed.

Furthermore, you definition of faith that you attribute to James is wrong. James does not commend that definition of Faith but condemns it as "dead" faith. Believing in God is better than not believing in God but neither one defines saving faith because God is not the object of saving faith but the object is Christ alone and his redemptive provision.

You simply ignored the Biblical characteristics that define saving faith and then attempted to persuade readers that james had his own little separate definition for his own contextual contrived purpose. However that is rediculous. James is not presenting a new or different definition of "faith" but he is condemning a wrong definition.

You simply ignored the fact that there are other KINDS of faith in the Bible distinguished from "dead" faith such as "vain" faith and "miracle" faith none of which save. Why? I will tell you why. If there is more than one kind of false faith then there are KINDS and you do not want to admit to that.

I stand by my exposition and I don't believe you can overthrow it with any objective evidence and I have yet to see any objective evidence. Your idea that verse 14 and the question "can faith save him" is addressed to God is contradicted GRAMMATICALLY and in clear English as the question is addressed to "MY BRETHREN." Last time I checked the plural "brethen" is never used to describe God. James places this question squarely before the HORIZONTAL court of human opinion "MY BRETHREN."

 

My opponent builds his whole case that the words "can faith save him" places the question before God rather than before the court of human opinion.

Rightly so! Because if it can be proven that James is not addressing God but addressing the court of HUMAN observation then the entire rest of his exposition of James 2:14-21 falls with it with a mighty fall.

Simply look at the highlighted words in the following quote and it is supremely obvious that James is addressing the HORIZONTAL COURT OF OBSERVATION and not God at all.

14 ¶ What doth it profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him?
15 If a brother or sister be naked, and destitute of daily food,
16 And one of you say unto them, Depart in peace, be ye warmed and filled; notwithstanding ye give them not those things which are needful to the body; what doth it profit?
17 Even so faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone.
18 Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works.

The same holds true with the Biblical illustrations that follow:

22 Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?
23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.
24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.

God is not called upon once by James to judge, to see, to shew anything. Even in the following verses the horizontal court of human observation is clearly implied:

19 Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble.
20 But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead?

Certainly to believe in God in any sense is better to deny God but that hardly constitutes Biblical faith. More importantly, it is clear that james continues to address "thou" and "man" not God. He merely brings the demons in to apply to the judgement from the court of human of observation.

 

Unto what kind of resurrection do those who have done evil come?? Did I read that right "CONDEMNATION"? (judgement). In other words, they have already lived and died and the KIND of judgement they are already determined to stand in is not the same as those who have done good? Is that correct? So those who have done good arise to what kind of judgement? Did I read that right "LIFE"?

Hence they are resurrected to a judgement that has already determined their end rather than a judgment in order to determine their end as you suppose!!

What does the two different kinds (condemnation versus life) of judgement determine then? REWARDS in connection with that predetermined end. The wicked will be rewarded according to their works in eternity of condemnation. The righteous will be rewarded according to their works in eternity of life.

John 10:27-30 has absolutely nothing to say and nothing to do with what sheep know or think - nada - zilch! This text declares what Christ knows and thinks.

27 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:
28 And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.
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Are you calling Christ a liar in regard to what he claims to know and think???