Well 113 views and not, A, thought. Here are a few thoughts.
He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil. 1 John 3:8
Seeing, then, the children have partaken of flesh and blood, he himself also in like manner did take part of the same, that through (the) death he might destroy him having the power of (the) death -- that is, the devil -- Heb 2:14 YLT
Did the devil's sin have to take place before he possessed, the power of the death?
Did he possess, the power of the death, before or after man was created in the image of God?
Is, the power of the death, one of the works of the devil?
I should have had 1 Peter 1:18-20 included above with Gal 4:1,5 In the fulness of time.
Before man was created in the image of his creator; Did the devil and his works need to be destroyed? If yes, how was God going to accomplish doing so? What was foreordained before the foundation of the world?
Would, what was foreordained before the foundation of the world, accomplish the destruction of the devil and his works.
Would these thoughts influence one's concept of Genesis 1 as to purpose of verse 3 and following?
And as far as that goes Verses 1 and 2?
Where was the devil during verses 1 and 2?
We know where he was and who he was after God took the woman from the man unto Christ 1 Peter 1:19.
Just thoughts.
