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Transition from Mark 16:8 to Mark 16:9

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by Nimrod, Apr 2, 2003.

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  1. Nimrod

    Nimrod New Member

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    Zondervan's NIV Bible Commentary, Vol II, notes of the longer Marcan ending:

    "Style: The connection between v.8 and vv, 9-20 is abrupt and awkward. Verse 9 begins with the masculine nominative participle anastas, which demands for its antecedent 'he,' i.e., Jesus; but the subject of the last sentence of v.8 is the women, not Jesus" (p 204).


    Does anyone here know enough Greek to refute this claim?
     
    #1 Nimrod, Apr 2, 2003
  2. Johnv

    Johnv New Member

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    I'm no Greek expert, but I took the time to look up the Greek, and it looks like they're correct.
     
    #2 Johnv, Apr 2, 2003
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