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Translation ERROR in KJV bible.

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
Originally posted by psr.2:
Ed you might want to check the air in your house. It seems that there is not enough oxygen content for your brain to work properly. I have given plain proof of doctrinal changes and could go further to show omitted verses bit it will not help a person that does not want the truth.
Again, attacking the bearer of
bad news does not make the news better.

You have yet to mention one doctrine, let alone
a change to it. Again, I do not respond
to one word changes. English is such a
redundant langauge that often you could take
out half the words and still get the
message.

Again, there are more doctrinal variations
from minunderstandings
of the KJV than there are from version
to version variants.

wave.gif
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
Here is you a doctrine.

The doctrine of the Sovereignty of God:
God can do anything He wants, any time He wants,
anwhere He wants, any way He wants, using
whatever methods He desires to achieve whatever
ends He wants.

Oh, and He doesn't need to let me in on
any part of it, unless it is His will.

Do you believe this doctrine?

I believe it is an expressing of the Sovereignty
of God that He has preserved His inerrent
Written Word for all Generations of English
speakers by providing multiple versions.

thumbs.gif
 
P

psr.2

Guest
quote;The doctrine of the Sovereignty of God:

Pity Ed that the word does not appear in the bible so it canot be true.

In the words of your friend Charles "show me in one verse of scripture where sovereignty of God appears.
I'll save you the time it doesn't.
Ed you cannot understand basic English so why bother trying to debate a person who has and believes the VERY WORDS OF GOD?
 

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Hello psr.2 I see you have returned after a month or so away.

Your posts remind me of some one else.

"precepts", is it you again?

HankD
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
Originally posted by Stealth Poster:
quote;The doctrine of the Sovereignty of God:

Pity Ed that the word does not appear in the bible so it canot be true.
I note your believeability pegged at zero.

"Velcro" is not in the KJV nor any MVs.
Nevertheless, it handily holds my shoes
on. (I was raised when we used shoestrings
/also not mentioned in the Bible/ but
they were hard to put on, Velcro shoe
fasteners are easy to use. Praise Jesus
for giving us the wisdom to invent velcro
applause.gif
)

Alright, you cannot show that compared
to the KJV, a MV (any MV) changes any
doctrine -- you cannot do it because you
don't know what "doctrine" means nor how
word a doctrine.

BTW, The doctrine of the Sovereignty of God
is true and can be shown both from the
KJV or the HCSB that I use.

BTW also, God is Sovereign whether we
acknowledge it or not. Wouldn't you like
to acknowledge God as being your Sovereign?

Romans 10:9 (HCSB):
if you confess with your mouth,
"Jesus is Lord," and believe in
your heart that God raised Him from
the dead, you will be saved.


Yes, when you do this (or "did this")
you make Jesus both your Sovereign and
your Savior.
 
P

psr.2

Guest
No I am not. I have been asked about who I am since the day I got here. I'm just me.

Yes I have been away and will be again soon but I monitor when I can.

Let's talk bible and get past the welcomes shall we?
 
P

psr.2

Guest
quote;
Alright, you cannot show that compared
to the KJV, a MV (any MV) changes any
doctrine -- you cannot do it because you
don't know what "doctrine" means nor how
word a doctrine.

Ed your nose is growing because that is a lie. I have shown you on this thread.
 

rsr

<b> 7,000 posts club</b>
Moderator
If you onl you understood, you would understand. Ho-hum. More bilge.

"Let's talk bible and get past the welcomes shall we? "

Ain't no welcomes here.
 

Rooster

New Member
Originally posted by Cix:
Would any of you KJV onlyists care to explain why there is an obvious translation error in Matthew 23:24? And please don't say it's a misprint since misprints get corrected in later printings. Translation errors perpetuate into later printings.

Since there is an error in translation, and God does not make errors, doesn't this mean that the KJV is NOT inspired?

Cix
Straining AT gnats since 2003.
There is no mistake or error, that is just the dialog they used back in the day, useing the Enlish language of the day is not an error.
 

Rooster

New Member
Originally posted by Ed Edwards:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Dr. Bob:
When is an "error" not an "error"? That is the question.
New Double Standard detected:

An error in a KJV is a boo-boo;
an error in a MV is the unforgivable sin.
</font>[/QUOTE]The MV [attack on Word of God snipped]

[ August 22, 2004, 07:29 PM: Message edited by: Dr. Bob ]
 

natters

New Member
TaterTot said "I noticed today that in 2 Kings 21, what KJV calls a "grove", others called an "Ashera pole". There is a BIG difference between the two, but the latter makes a lot more sense in light of the context of that bad ol' Mannasa."

The latter does make more sense. The Hebrew word is even "ashera". El and his wife Ashera are very prominant gods in Babylonian religion. One of their children was Baal. You will often see Ashera and Baal in the same context, as in Judges 3:7, where the children of Israel did evil by serving Baal and "ashera", or as in Judges 6:30 where the alter of Baal and the "ashera" that was with it. 1 Kings 18have the prophets of Baal and the prophets of "ashera" meeting together against Elijah, etc.
 

natters

New Member
Michelle said "The translators of course were not referring to the corrupt Alexandrain manuscripts"

Actually, they were including those. The Septuagint, which is also from Alexandria (and is far more different from the KJV than the NIV or NASB is) was called "the word of God" by them.
 

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Let's talk bible and get past the welcomes shall we?
Sure:

What do you think of this passage and how it relates to this forum Bible Versions/Translations?

James 3
13 Who is a wise man and endued with knowledge among you? let him shew out of a good conversation his works with meekness of wisdom.
14 But if ye have bitter envying and strife in your hearts, glory not, and lie not against the truth.
15 This wisdom descendeth not from above, but is earthly, sensual, devilish.
16 For where envying and strife is, there is confusion and every evil work.
17 But the wisdom that is from above is first pure, then peaceable, gentle, and easy to be intreated, full of mercy and good fruits, without partiality, and without hypocrisy.
18 And the fruit of righteousness is sown in peace of them that make peace.

HankD
 

natters

New Member
psr.2 said "The NIV omits 1 John 5:13"

No it doesn't. Do you even check your facts before posting, or are you just repeating what you heard somewhere?
 

Rooster

New Member
Originally posted by Rooster:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Cix:
Would any of you KJV onlyists care to explain why there is an obvious translation error in Matthew 23:24? And please don't say it's a misprint since misprints get corrected in later printings. Translation errors perpetuate into later printings.

Since there is an error in translation, and God does not make errors, doesn't this mean that the KJV is NOT inspired?

Cix
Straining AT gnats since 2003.
There is no mistake or error, that is just the dialog they used back in the day, useing the Enlish language of the day is not an error. </font>[/QUOTE]and this is the bottom line.
 

Orvie

New Member
Originally posted by psr.2:
I'm just me.
A charter member of the Nehushtan (2 Kgs 18:4) Pickled Version Sect who believes apparently that God is stuck to speak to today's readers in the version produced by (some) Anglicans who despised Baptists, in a version that is stale for many of today's readers (not fresh), and the Sword is rusty, in that it's English is old as your common man has difficulty w/ it. (it's language, I'm not talking about it's message, which is much clearer in the MV's).
Remember, God chose to write His N.T. in the Greek of the day; Koine, the "everyday" Greek instead of Attic Greek; i.e. classical. Sound familar? That principle alone should tell the KJVO's:kjbo's the principle of using MV"s is A-OK. Even the KJV says to use the MV's! where? read 1 Cor 14:9. ;)
 

Rooster

New Member
Originally posted by natters:
psr.2 said "The NIV omits 1 John 5:13"

No it doesn't. Do you even check your facts before posting, or are you just repeating what you heard somewhere?
Since the NIV is copyrighted, there are diffrences between the NIV published by differant publishers, they all have to make some change in order to copyright their version of the NIV, leave out verses, or change them, the NIV also leaves out "The Blood of Christ"
 

Orvie

New Member
Originally posted by Rooster:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by natters:
psr.2 said "The NIV omits 1 John 5:13"

No it doesn't. Do you even check your facts before posting, or are you just repeating what you heard somewhere?
Since the NIV is copyrighted, there are diffrences between the NIV published by differant publishers, they all have to make some change in order to copyright their version of the NIV, leave out verses, or change them, the NIV also leaves out "The Blood of Christ" </font>[/QUOTE]***yawn***
Are you aware the KJV was copyrighted? did that mean it couldn't be used until it's copyright was no longer in force? Do you want me to direct you to Kutilek's article about this?
 

michelle

New Member
--------------------------------------------------
A charter member of the Nehushtan (2 Kgs 18:4) Pickled Version Sect who believes apparently that God is stuck to speak to today's readers in the version produced by (some) Anglicans who despised Baptists, in a version that is stale for many of today's readers (not fresh), and the Sword is rusty, in that it's English is old as your common man has difficulty w/ it. (it's language, I'm not talking about it's message, which is much clearer in the MV's).
Remember, God chose to write His N.T. in the Greek of the day; Koine, the "everyday" Greek instead of Attic Greek; i.e. classical. Sound familar? That principle alone should tell the KJVO's:kjbo's the principle of using MV"s is A-OK. Even the KJV says to use the MV's! where? read 1 Cor 14:9.
--------------------------------------------------


Just like the Hebrew and Greek, only Hebrew and Greek we (the common faithful English speaking believer) cannot understand. We CAN UNDERSTAND the English of the KJB (Gods words -the scriptures) however. Your logic and excuses fail and will always fail, if they are not grounded on this truth.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 
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