translators of KJV

Did JW theology influence the NWT?

Did mainline, liberal theology influence the RSV?

My answer: yes, their Anglicanism influenced the KJV.

 

UZ, you're "preaching to the choir" with me!

 

Just as much as it is possible that God could use a bunch of sinners (disciples) who had flawed theology (judaism of their day) to bring about the original inerrant autographs.

Max

 

Yes, the Bible states that God inspired
the Scriptures or that all Scripture is given
by inspiration of God (2 Tim. 3:16). The process of holy men of God being moved by the Holy Spirit (2 Pet. 1:21) would seem to be referring to the same process of the inspiration of the Scriptures.
In my opinion, the apostle Peter's description of the process of inspiration would justify the referring to of "inspired" prophets or apostles.
What difference do you see in referring to divinely-moved writers and to inspired writers?

The early English translators did not see a problem with indicating that a writer of the Scritpures was inspired. Tyndale's, Matthew's, Great, Whittingham's, and Bishops' Bibles all render Mark 12:36 as follows: "for David himself inspired with the Holy Ghost." KJV translator Lancelot Andrewes used this same early English Bible terminology when he preached that Christ "inspireth them [referring to the apostles] with the Holy Ghost" (NINETY-SIX SERMONS, p. 83). William Whitaker (1547-1595), a Puritan writer of that day and who had studied the Bible with KJV translator Laurence Chaderton,
used this terminology when he wrote: "God inspired the prophets" (DISPUTATION ON HOLY SCRIPTURE AGAINST THE PAPISTS, p. 296).

On the other hand, KJV-only author D. A. Waite claimed that referring to "inspired prophets and apostles" is "theological error" (FOES OF THE KJB REFUTED, p. 26).

 

The difference is that the bible says the writings are inspired but never says the people are inspired.

God breathed the words but He did not breathe the people. </font>[/QUOTE]Cassidy, I think that you are splitting hairs here. Why do you see the need to distinguish between the "writings" and the "writers"? Inspiration is the act of God the Holy Spirit, whereby He supernaturally influences the "writers" minds, so that the end product of their work, is as good as the Holy Spirit doing the writing Himself. Agreed, that the Holy Spirit used the personalities of those who wrote as His command, but, nonetheless, they were at the time of their penning the Books of the Holy Bible, Infallable, Inerrant. Not to say that they became Infallable persons, but, only for the time of their writing did the Holy Spirit so control their minds. The Greek verb, "phero" used in 2 Peter 1:21, rendered "moved" in the KJV, also has the meanings, "to convey", "to produce", or, "impell".

 

The early English translators did not see the need to distinguish between them.

Tyndale's, Matthew's, Great, Whittingham's, and Bishops' Bible all translated Mark 12:36 as follows: "for David himself inspired with the Holy Ghost."

 

We must distinguish between the writings and the writers. The writers were mere mortals, tools used by God to produce His result. The writings are permanent and the results of the tools.