This is a theological question for my Landmark brethren that deny the concept of a 'Universal Church' consisting of all the redeemed. Let me state ahead that I am not interested in debating but rather to hear and think through your responses. So thanks ahead of time.
I have heard the debate usually revolve around a person either believing in a 'local/visible' church or a 'universal/invisible' church. However, this seems to misunderstand that there is a clear line of believers who have held to both (1689 LBC, etc.). That is why they made a distinction between the two and instead of seeing an either/or (local vs. universal) their was a belief in both/and (local and universal).
It is often argued that all of the redeemed have never assembled and thus cannot be refered to as a 'church'. They appear to argue that to apply the word 'church' to all the redeemed would violate what the word means. However, this is to misunderstand the very nature of the church being argued for. No one is arguing that all the redeemed have assembled literally and visibly (as in local churches) but have indeed assembled in Christ (see Jn. 6:37, etc.). Now some will be quick to argue "wait a minute that is not a 'literal' church", to which they are correct hence the distinction b/t the two.
This is not inventing a new definition for the greek word translated 'church' but rather a different application. Many instances could be pointed to in scripture used in a similiar fashion. The word Baptism is used in a literal sense (water baptism) and in figurative senses (judgement, sufferings, spirit, etc.). This is also true of other terms (kingdom, family, brother, etc.) where there is a literal meaning and a spiritual meaning.
I am curious if you are aware of any Landmark works that deal with this or you would be willing to offer your thoughts? (BTW, don't feel that you have to be guarded with your statements as I am only looking for general responses and not interested in debating this)
I have heard the debate usually revolve around a person either believing in a 'local/visible' church or a 'universal/invisible' church. However, this seems to misunderstand that there is a clear line of believers who have held to both (1689 LBC, etc.). That is why they made a distinction between the two and instead of seeing an either/or (local vs. universal) their was a belief in both/and (local and universal).
It is often argued that all of the redeemed have never assembled and thus cannot be refered to as a 'church'. They appear to argue that to apply the word 'church' to all the redeemed would violate what the word means. However, this is to misunderstand the very nature of the church being argued for. No one is arguing that all the redeemed have assembled literally and visibly (as in local churches) but have indeed assembled in Christ (see Jn. 6:37, etc.). Now some will be quick to argue "wait a minute that is not a 'literal' church", to which they are correct hence the distinction b/t the two.
This is not inventing a new definition for the greek word translated 'church' but rather a different application. Many instances could be pointed to in scripture used in a similiar fashion. The word Baptism is used in a literal sense (water baptism) and in figurative senses (judgement, sufferings, spirit, etc.). This is also true of other terms (kingdom, family, brother, etc.) where there is a literal meaning and a spiritual meaning.
I am curious if you are aware of any Landmark works that deal with this or you would be willing to offer your thoughts? (BTW, don't feel that you have to be guarded with your statements as I am only looking for general responses and not interested in debating this)