Featured Vulgarity in translation

I do not believe the gospel should be toned-down. I have been told that Jesus could be quite earthy. I am not a Greek scholar, so I have to take the words of others.

The good, Anglo-Saxon, word s**t could be used as far as I am concerned. It certainly would leave little to misunderstand.

 

The KJV uses pi$$.

 

NEVER saw the "7 deadly words" though, not unless you have a bible revised by George carlin!

 

...and I believe it was done 'standing up' [1 Kings 16:11] :smilewinkgrin:

Rob

 

And against the wall.

 

ROFL .... Good one!

 

Seriously Bro, what did I tell you about this place.....you want scholarly....really?

 

Some words are considered profane under certain circumstances; consider --

A bastard shall not enter into the congregation of the LORD; even to his tenth generation shall he not enter into the congregation of the LORD. (Deu 23:2)
And a bastard shall dwell in Ashdod, and I will cut off the pride of the Philistines. (Zec 9:6) ​

Are those vulgar renderings? Would something like "illegitimate child" be better?

 

This was actually a Hebrew idiom for "grown men" in 6 passages, and I don't think a case can be made for it being a vulgar idiom in 1611, though in our modern society it is often considered so. The proper modern word for this should be "urine" or "urinate."

Note that the word "pi**" occurs in 2 Kings 18:27 and Is. 36:12 (same incident) along with "dung," which has never been a vulgarity in English. If you're going to use a vulgarity for one, you'll use one for the other, since the two words are a couplet.

 

You are projecting your 21st century understanding into 1611. It was not a vulgar term then.

 

The burden of proof is on you and the NET writer. I say skubalon was not a vulgar word in Koine Greek. Prove to me that it was, and then I'll consider your argument. Until then it is entirely speculative. Not one single lexicon that I have (and I have many) calls it a vulgar term.

 

Seriously?

Ask Logos:smilewinkgrin:....He knows everything! At least about the KJV! And by the way Amy...the word is piss....AND pisseth (I love olde English!)....NOT pi$$. Since it actually IS in the Bible (2 Kings 18;27, Isa.36:12, 1 Sam.25:22,34 , 1 Kings 14:10,(16:11-now isn't THAT an interesting coincidence?),21:21 & 2 Kings 9:8 we don't need to be afraid to say it here or anywhere else...amen?:thumbsup: By the way...if the "people of the Book" didn't consider it "vulgar" in 1611, then I don't think we need to consider it "vulgar" in 2013. There are other words in English that I might not say that about. IMHO

Bro.Greg:saint:

 

Greg, I know that piss (there, I typed it) was not a vulgar word in the 17th century, but it is in our culture. At least to me it is. So I do not like to use it. That's why Bibles need to be updated from time to time, because language changes.
In our culture, the word "bloody" is acceptable, but in the UK, it's a vulgar word, on par with the F bomb here.
So if you want to use the "p" word just because it was ok in 1611 England, be my guest. But I won't.

 

In our current society, would "Yo Momma" or "....and the horse you rode in here with" be considered vulgar since I cant say "go P*SS up a rope" or "go sh*t in your hat"

 

Probably not. Just extremely rude. Which is just as un-Christlike as vulgar language.

 

Yes well we are all sinners. Fallen world & all that.:smilewinkgrin: