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Was James Written to Believers?

JustChristian

New Member
Free Gracer said:
In every epistle of the New Testament, there was an intended audience the writer was focusing on. My contention is that there is not a single letter in the New Testament that was not written specifically and only to be applied for those who through faith in Christ have been regenerated. When we view the writers' own descriptions of the intended audience of their epistles, we usually meet up with at least 2 categories distinguishing the addressees: location and positional sanctification.

For instance, the book of Romans was addressed to the saints in Rome (Romans 1:7). 1 Corinthians was written to the church in Corinth, and more specifically to "those who are sanctified in Christ Jesus" (1 Cor 1:2). The examples could be multiplied.

But we are considering the book of James. Why is the knowledge of the intended audience in James important to our study? Lordship Salvation advocates insist that the purpose of James 2:14ff is to give test to the readers of his epistle to confirm or not if they are "truly" saved by considering their works, which they say must accompany faith for ultimate salvation. Was this the intention of James? If it can be shown that James was taking for granted that his intended audience was indeed born-again, would this not be a strike against the Lordship Salvation position? We will now consider the audience of James.

James 1:1 indicates that his audience was Jewish and scattered abroad:

James, a bondservant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, To the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad: Greetings.

While offering important information, this passage by itself does not answer the vital question of whether or not James is addressing born-again believers in Christ. To answer this question definitively the oft-repeated phrases "my beloved brethren" and "my brethren" in the epistle require contextual definition.

The phrase "my beloved brethren" appears three times: James 1:16, 1:19, and 2:5. The first two usages frame verse eighteen, which in turn serves to define "my beloved brethren".

16 Do not be deceived, my beloved brethren. . . . 18 Of His own will He brought us forth by the word of truth, that we might be a kind of firstfruits of His creatures. So then, my beloved brethren, let every man be swift to hear. . .

James 1:18 speaks of regeneration, using a term commonly associated with procreation, "brought forth". The “you” implied in the use of the second person plural imperative in both 1:16 and 1:19 is a subset of us or we in verse 1:18. The vocative "my beloved brethren" specifically defines the implied uses of “you” in each verse. In these three verses, James’ use of pronouns, the imperative mood, and vocatives indicates that both we and us include “you”: In other words, we (“you and I”) are beloved brethren, because God, our Father brought us (“you and me”) forth by the word of truth. James does not call the readers beloved brethren because they are fellow Jews, but because they are regenerate brethren in the Lord.

The third usage of the phrase "my beloved brethren" occurs in the midst of an exhortation against partiality, James 2:1–13. James begins his exhortation:

My brethren, do not hold the faith of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Lord of glory, with partiality. (James 2:1)

The vocative "my brethren" occurs twelve times throughout the epistle. This usage in James 2:1 is followed in the same context with the vocative "my beloved brethren" in 2:5:

Listen, my beloved brethren: Has God not chosen the poor of this world to be rich in faith and heirs of the kingdom which He promised to those who love Him?

Clearly, the phrase my brethren is an equivalent to my beloved brethren not only within this specific exhortation, but also within the Epistle of James as a whole.

Putting these evidences together reveals a complete picture: Those that James addresses in his epistle are born-again Jews scattered abroad, who like James share the same Father. The apostle James not only wrote to eternally secure believers, but his certainty that they possess the greatest of God’s good and perfect gifts (1:17), regeneration by God (1:18) underlies his exhortations to apply the doctrine that they, in fact, do believe.

In case anyone needs more proof, consider James 4:5:

Or do you think that the Scripture says in vain,"The Spirit who dwells in us yearns jealously? (James 4:5)

which contains a strong rebuke to believers who are not applying the word. It would seem that they have no works, but the Spirit indwells them.

The problems that James describes in his epistle are problems that apply to his "beloved brethren", people with the indwelling Spirit of God. Again, the various theological models of James need to come to grips with the text, rather than superimposing their theology onto the book.

Question : Who was the passage in James 2:14ff written for?

Answer: Born-again believers in the Lord Jesus Christ.

If the book of James was written to believers then it must be stating principles that must be followed by born again believers. Correct? These would also apply to those who wish to become born again believers. Therefore, it's clear that no matter where you side in this debate you come up with the same answer.
 

Marcia

Active Member
Havensdad said:
Marcia,

James 2:14 does not say "Can that faith give Him a fulfilled Christian Walk". It says that faith can't "save" you. Would you please explain what "save" is referring to here?

It says a person who has a faith but says he has not works has a faith that is empty or meaningless. The point of this seems to be that believers are being urged to act like Christians, not just talk like them. That is the whole tone of the book and the context of the book is one thing we look at to interpret. Why urge unbelievers to live out a faith they don't even have?
 

Havensdad

New Member
Marcia said:
It says a person who has a faith but says he has not works has a faith that is empty or meaningless. The point of this seems to be that believers are being urged to act like Christians, not just talk like them. That is the whole tone of the book and the context of the book is one thing we look at to interpret. Why urge unbelievers to live out a faith they don't even have?

No. It specifically says the faith CANNOT SAVE HIM. What is it saving them from?

"Empty" faith, is faith that does not save.

ALSO, the text DOES NOT say the man has faith. Specifically, it says "if a man says he has faith". This is someone who "says" they have faith, but it in fact, does not, because he has no works.

The phrases "faith was completed by His works" and "faith without works is meaningless(you word)", means simply this> If I believe in trains, I am going to step off the track. If I smile and stay where I am, I am a hypocrite, giving lipservice "saying" I have faith, but in fact, do not have faith.
 

Marcia

Active Member
Havensdad said:
No. It specifically says the faith CANNOT SAVE HIM. What is it saving them from?

"Empty" faith, is faith that does not save.

ALSO, the text DOES NOT say the man has faith. Specifically, it says "if a man says he has faith". This is someone who "says" they have faith, but it in fact, does not, because he has no works.

The phrases "faith was completed by His works" and "faith without works is meaningless(you word)", means simply this> If I believe in trains, I am going to step off the track. If I smile and stay where I am, I am a hypocrite, giving lipservice "saying" I have faith, but in fact, do not have faith.

This does not mean James is written to unbelievers. It is rebuking believers for acting like unbelievers because they are not walking the talk!

It's as if I say, "You are going to R movies and sleeping in on Sunday and hardly read your Bible. Does true faith bring about such behavior?"

It's a rebuke!
 

Havensdad

New Member
Marcia said:
This does not mean James is written to unbelievers. It is rebuking believers for acting like unbelievers because they are not walking the talk!

It's as if I say, "You are going to R movies and sleeping in on Sunday and hardly read your Bible. Does true faith bring about such behavior?"

It's a rebuke!

A rebuke to people who say they have faith, that say they are Christians, and do not and are not.
 

Allan

Active Member
Havensdad said:
A rebuke to people who say they have faith, that say they are Christians, and do not and are not.
No, they are but living as though they are not. Just follow the context.
 

Allan

Active Member
Havensdad said:
No. It specifically says the faith CANNOT SAVE HIM. What is it saving them from?

"Empty" faith, is faith that does not save.

ALSO, the text DOES NOT say the man has faith. Specifically, it says "if a man says he has faith". This is someone who "says" they have faith, but it in fact, does not, because he has no works.

The phrases "faith was completed by His works" and "faith without works is meaningless(you word)", means simply this> If I believe in trains, I am going to step off the track. If I smile and stay where I am, I am a hypocrite, giving lipservice "saying" I have faith, but in fact, do not have faith.
No, he isn't saying they aren't saved but is correcting them for assuming maybe even teaching that faith is all you have to worry about. It doesn't say they were living lasivious lives nor in a sinful manner (as in committing sin) however they were not living as though their life was not their own.

James is showing the difference between mental assent and true faith, not that they don't 'have' true faith. He is correcting via rebuke not making a statement about their spiritual lives as though they were all unsaved. You miss the whole point of his writting with that understanding.
 
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EdSutton

New Member
Havensdad said:
EdSutton said:
I believe if you were to re-check, you would find that the word for save is "σῶζω" or "sOzO" (to use my 'system' of transliterating) or as others have done, "swzw", which is a word used in Jas. 2:14.

It is a phonetic spelling, Ed, straight from the digital edition of Strong's.
"sode'zo" is actually how the word is "pronounced" (It is not a phonetic spelling.), not how it is "spelled", which was what I was referring to, to correct a possible misunderstanding from my previous post. And I might suggest you consider re-reading page 5 in the Hebrew and Greek Dictionaries, on which is found the "Plan of the Book," a bit more closely, as well.
The root is the same. You are talking semantics. It is speaking of the same thing. "Pistis"(Faith) is what someone has if they are "pisteou" (sic) (faithful, believing).
Before I comment on these four sentences, above, I seem to recall a few statements that you (Havensdad) have made on this thread, that I will now quote. I do hope all will bear with me, as I highlight some things in them, although any capitalization is not my own, but that of the author of the quote.
What are the FACTS? I see "opinions", but they are based on peoples pet theologies, not on the content of the letter itself.

The FACT is, the letter is addressed to the "Twelve tribes". Why do people say these are "believers"? Because they want to. There is nothing in the letter itself, which would make one think that, except there (sic) own presuppositions. (post # 5)

And so, you eliminate anything that could disprove your own skewed theology. By limiting the writings to addressing ONLY truly saved individuals, instead of the entire assemblies made up of believers and unbelievers, which they are actually written to, you take the teeth out of the difficult passages, and you are able to make yourself feel better, by placing everyone in heaven in your mind. (post # 12)

Well, the OBVIOUS meaning, is that "faith" that does not produce works, does not produce salvation. I believe this is the correct interpretation.

However, if you place artificial limitations on the text, and say "This text is ONLY addressing saved Christians!", it Changes the interpretation. (post # 21)

People who "skew" this verse, have an unbelievably obvious agenda. (post # 27)
Speaking of "pet theologies", "artificial limitations", 'changing interpretations', and "agendae" (not to mention a couple or three more ad hominems that I noticed), does this include the Greek language, as well, where you accused me of "talking semantics", an allegation that I do deny, FTR.

I am fully aware of what is the 'root' meaning, of "πιστεύω" or "pisteuō" but unfortunately, I believe you are (hopefully, unintentionally) misrepresenting the case with your statements of:
The root is the same. You are talking semantics. It is speaking of the same thing. "Pistis"(Faith) is what someone has if they are "pisteou" (sic) (faithful, believing).
Not true! You would have been effectively correct, were you to have said "Pistis" (Faith) is what someone has WHEN they "pisteuo" (believe). But I suspect you did not intend to say this latter sentence, at all, you know, "obvious agendae", "pet theologies" and all like that (consistent with your posts), as contrasted to the meanings conveyed by the words themselves.

There is a definite difference, here, between these two above sentences, and in fact, in the briefest of nutshells, this represents the bottom line of difference between "Lordship (or discipleship) Salvation", and "non-Lordship salvation".

To show this let us first look at the various Greek words numbered 3982 and from 4100 - 4104. The "root" word of this group is "πείθω" ("peithō") (3982). The entry is as follows: (although I do not include how the KJV, RV or ASV render the word, preferring to concentrate on the actual meaning, as given by Dr. Strong.): "a primary verb; to convince (by argument, true or false); by analogy, to pacify or conciliate (by other fair means); reflexively or passively, to assent (to evidence or authority), to rely (by inward certainty): "

From this word we get the first 'derived word' (# 4102) - the feminine noun of "πίστις" ("pistis"): " from πείθω (peitho) 3982; persuasion, i.e. credence; moral conviction (of religious truth, or the truthfulness of God or a religious teacher), especially reliance upon Christ for salvation; abstractly, constancy in such profession; by extension, the system of religious (Gospel) truth itself: "

And from "pistis" we then get another verb, #4100 - "πιστεύω" ("pisteuō") "from πίστις (pistis) 4102; to have faith (in, upon, or with respect to, a person or thing), i.e. credit; by implication, to entrust (especially one's spiritual well-being to Christ): "

The first word, is the key word, simply because the others proceed from it. Yet its definition seems to be at variance with the Lordship Salvation view.

One of the 'Straw men' erected by the advocates of Lordship Salvation is that the adherents of "free grace" are preaching "easy believism" by suggesting that "mental assent" is all that is 'necessary' for salvation. Did you happen to notice the definition of 'peitho' is "convince," "pacify," "assent," and "rely"? This is both the Biblical and linguistic "starting point".

The second "pile of straw" that is erected, is that "while we are saved by 'grace alone' (or 'believing alone', or 'faith alone', kinda' depending on who is wording this), this 'faith is never alone'." (I suggest this should be run by Paul, Abraham, and David, among others, as per Rom. 4:1-8, and Tit. 3:5, among other Scritures, regarding justification before God, and righteousness being imputed apart from any works, on our part.)

A third would be the addition of 'qualifiers' that are completely foreign to Scripture, and the language, such as "genuine faith" or "'really' and/or 'truly' believe". None of the above words either need or demand any such as these 'lingual' additions (or 'clarifications') :rolleyes:, which are subtle attempts to 'read theology' into the actual words and texts, IMO. There are indeed more straw men I could list, but these should suffice to show the point.

There are two additional related (although much less frequently used) words, namely # 4103 "πιστός" ("pistos"), an adjective: from πείθω - peitho 3982; objectively, trustworthy; subjectively, trustful:
and # 4104, the verb "πιστόω" ("pistoō"): from πιστός - pistos 4103; to assure:

May I repeat this for all BB readers. For the one who advocates "Lordship Salvation", such as Havensdad to whom I am replying, and whose exact quote this is (with one spelling correction), "Pistis" (Faith) is what someone has if they are "pisteuō" (faithful, believing)." (My emphasis.) For the Lordship salvation adherent, in the final analysis, faith (hence salvation) is the result of faithfulness. It is about performance, or is at least "peformance qualified", as the quote well shows.

However, the Biblical language simply does not and will not support this "presupposition", hence according to the language, and for the advocates of "non-Lordship Salvation", such as me- EdSutton, "Pistis" (Faith) is what someone has WHEN they "pisteuō" (believe). For the non-Lordship salvation adherent, faithfulness is the result of faith, or salvation.

Huge difference!

Ed
 
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Allan

Active Member
Allan said:
No, they are but living as though they are not. Just follow the context.
Correction to the above - I left out a piece :(

"No they are but living as though they are not needing be doing anything after they have believed.. Just follow the context.
 

Allan

Active Member
EdSutton said:
For the one who advocates "Lordship Salvation", such as Havensdad to whom I am replying, and whose exact quote this is (with one spelling correction), "Pistis" (Faith) is what someone has if they are "pisteuō" (faithful, believing)." (My emphasis.) For the Lordship salvation adherent, in the final analysis, faith (hence salvation) is the result of faithfulness. It is about performance, or is at least "peformance qualified", as the quote well shows.

However, the Biblical language simply does not and will not support this "presupposition", hence according to the language, and for the advocates of "non-Lordship Salvation", such as me- EdSutton, "Pistis" (Faith) is what someone has WHEN they "pisteuō" (believe). For the non-Lordship salvation adherent, faithfulness is the result of faith, or salvation.

Huge difference!

Ed
Well said Ed. Well said.


Stuff like this just amazes me sometimes. It shouldn't but it still does.
I have even heard it stated here on the BB (in the Baptist section) that the book of James is all about a works based salvation and works only, since it is assumed to be the first book written of the NT, just before the church in Acts put it's foot down and basically said no it is salvation by grace not works. However for some unknown reason it was made apart of of NT cannon. This person as well is reformed in thought however many Reformers will disagree with him.
 

Havensdad

New Member
EdSutton said:
"sode'zo" is actually how the word is "pronounced" (It is not a phonetic spelling.), not how it is "spelled", which was what I was referring to, to correct a possible misunderstanding from my previous post. And I might suggest you consider re-reading page 5 in the Hebrew and Greek Dictionaries, on which is found the "Plan of the Book," a bit more closely, as well.

Perhaps you need to go back to first year Greek (I do not know if you have actually taken Greek). BOTH are just pronunciations. When you render it into English, it is a phonetic spelling. From the 2008 digital edition...

σώζω

sōzō, sode'-zo

From a primary word σῶς sōs̄ (contraction for the obsolete σάος saos, “safe”); to save, that is, deliver or protect (literally or figuratively): - heal, preserve, save (self), do well, be (make) whole.

Notice the little lines above the o's? That indicates a pronunciation as well. "Sode-Zo" gives a more accurate pronunciation. A Zeta makes a "dz" sound, not a simple z.

FYI, "phonetic spelling", means to "spell it how it sounds" or "Spell it like the pronunciation". Perhaps you missed the part in Greek class, where they explained all of these transliterations were approximations, and some people spelled it differently?






In regards to the rest of your post: Salvation is tied both to "faithfulness" and "faith". Example:

Act 16:31 And they said, "Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household." (Pisteuo')

2Th 2:13 But we ought always to give thanks to God for you, brothers beloved by the Lord, because God chose you as the firstfruits to be saved, through sanctification by the Spirit and belief in the truth. (Pistis)

AGAIN: What will this work-less faith in James 2:14 not save us from? You have still failed to answer the question. Perhaps you are deliberately redirecting the conversation so that you can avoid a question that your theology will not allow you to give an answer to?
 

Marcia

Active Member
Lou Martuneac said:
Antonio forgot to publish every e-mail. After he sent me a second e-mail today, I replied...




BB Readers:

da Rosa's repetition of plagiarism reveals truly poor judgment and character. He knew he plagiarized Niemela at his blog and he knowing used the same plagiarized material here.

However, as I noted, that pales in comparison to his reckless abuse of the Scriptures to promote the Crossless/Deityless gospel of the Grace Evangelical Society.


LM

Would you and Free Gracer please stop posting this stuff here? You are not addressing the OP.
 

Amy.G

New Member
Marcia said:
Would you and Free Gracer please stop posting this stuff here? You are not addressing the OP.
Ditto. They need to go find another sandbox to play in. :rolleyes:



Since we're off topic anyway, did anyone see my baby boy in my avitar? He got married 2 weeks ago. Boy, I'm old. :laugh:
 

rsr

<b> 7,000 posts club</b>
Moderator
The original topic was:

"Was James Written to Believers?"

Please keep to the topic.

Thank you.
 
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