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was Jesus self limiting himself while here upon the earth?
- Thread starter Yeshua1
- Start date
My understanding is that Jesus grew up and learned like any other human. I think this is evident in Scripture (Luke 2:52). At the same time Jesus knows what is in man, and this seems to be in a supernatural way (John 2:23).
All of the miracles were attributed to the Father through the Spirit (the Father testifying concerning the Son - not Jesus testifying to His own divinity). Jesus did nothing of His own accord. We can also see this with the fact that the Disciples, through the Spirit, healed the blind, the lame, and raised the dead. Peter walked on water...until his faith ran out.
What do you believe?
All of the miracles were attributed to the Father through the Spirit (the Father testifying concerning the Son - not Jesus testifying to His own divinity). Jesus did nothing of His own accord. We can also see this with the fact that the Disciples, through the Spirit, healed the blind, the lame, and raised the dead. Peter walked on water...until his faith ran out.
What do you believe?
Jesus veiled Himself into sinless humanity, as such, He chose to accept the limitations of being fully human now!
was also still fully God, but was limited in his knowledge at that time, as as His second coming date.
I don't believe the Incarnation was a "veil". I believe God became man.
As do I, veiling to me means that He did not display off all of His glory to us, as those who looked at him would say just a Man!
SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
Jesus Christ, during His Incarnation, was, "God manifested in the flesh" (1 Timothy 3:16). He remained in the "very nature of God", while "taking on Himself" the "very nature of Humans", sin excepted. (Philippians 2:5-8). For the duration of His earthly life, Jesus "laid aside His Glory", that is, "His equality" with the Father, and became "subordinate" to the Father during this time. (John 17:5; Philippians 2:5-8, Hebrews 2:7-9, etc). The Bible never says that Jesus was in any way "dependant" on either the Father or Holy Spirit, but always, as God, worked "together with", the other Persons of the Holy Trinity. Jesus never did anything by Himself, because as He is the Second Person of the Trinity, could never detach Himself from the Godhead, and would naturally always work together with the Father and Holy Spirit. In His earthly Ministry, Jesus came as the Suffering Servant, and as Servant, had a "Master", Who is the Father. Hence, Jesus as "Man", could say, "the Father is greater than I", (John 14:28); and also say, as God, "I and the Father we are one" (John 10:30). The Person of Jesus Christ is one of the Greatest Mysteries, which our human minds can never fully understand.
So you believe God can limit His knowledge to what He chooses to know, while incarnate but not at any other time. Interesting...
And now, O Father, (glorify) thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was. John 17:5
So also Christ (glorified) not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him, Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten thee. Heb 5:5
But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot: Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you, Who by him do believe in God, (that) raised him up from the dead, and gave him (glory); that your faith and hope might be in God. 1 Peter 1:19-21
How does veiling figure into all that?
Is one separate from the other? Did one, must needs, to receive, from the other?
37818
Well-Known Member
To understand His reason for this, first you need to underststand He did limit His omniscience. Remember He said to Abraham, Genesis 22:12, "for now I know that thou fearest God, . . ." This is years after, Genesis 15:6.
SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
this is an impossibility!
Why answer a question with a question? At a minimum, you should have addressed the question to Y1.
Does our all powerful God have the capacity to limit His knowledge? A simple yes or no would be offered by someone without guile. SBG's answer is no. Not biblical, but he had the courage of his convictions.
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SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
canadyjd
Well-Known Member
No, God doesn’t self limit His knowledge. God never asks a question that He doesn’t already know the answer to.
Any communication with us is a condescension designed to increase our understanding of Him and/or our relationship with Him. God never “learns” new information, even if scripture gives that impression.
I’ve heard some argue that God self-limited His knowledge of who would be saved in an attempt to preserve His Devine attribute of omniscience while supporting their view of “free will” in salvation.
So my question to your question is an attempt to understand if you are trying to make that case.
peace to you
RighteousnessTemperance&
Well-Known Member
There is no reason Jesus would have had to rely on his own divine nature to know something, as he would have had access to necessary divine revelation like the greatest of the OT prophets.
SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
HUH? Jesus Christ IS ETERNALLY Almighty God, YHWH!
RighteousnessTemperance&
Well-Known Member
What meanest thou, “Huh?” That doesn't address what was stated, except to ignore what has already been established even by yourself, namely Jesus' human nature.