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Well the first place I'd check would be the INTRODUCTION to the NKJV and see what they say.
Rob
I have, and it seemed that they were using the TR as the Greek text basis , but also were using items such as CT/MT in some areas....
No, didn't use the CT
I've had kjvo's tell me 1200 places before, but usually run away when I ask them for an example. askjo one time here said 800 but failed in every example he gave.
...the New King James Version is the fifth revision of a historic document translated from specific Greek texts, the editors decided to retain the traditional text in the body of the New Testament and to indicate major Critical and Majority Text variant readings in the popup notes.
The New King James Version Introduction. 1982. Nashville: Thomas Nelson.
so the translators consulted the other Greek texts that were NOT available to the KJV, but used ONLY the TR, and put other "possible" renderings based on CT/MT in notes?
Their text was based from the TR although the cited various readings from the CT and MT when there is divergence and possible significance.so the translators consulted the other Greek texts that were NOT available to the KJV, but used ONLY the TR, and put other "possible" renderings based on CT/MT in notes?
Their text was based from the TR although the cited various readings from the CT and MT when there is divergence and possible significance.
No. They don't consider the NKJV to be a real bible because it is not the KJV.[/COLOR]
Would that reason be why many KJVO look at the NKJV as NOT being a 'real" KJV bible?
No. They don't consider the NKJV to be a real bible because it is not the KJV.
No, the KJV and the NKJV are not same because they differently translated for example of 2 Cor. 10:5. Go and check this passage.was it based upon SAME Greek source as the old KJV was?
No, the KJV and the NKJV are not same because they differently translated for example of 2 Cor. 10:5. Go and check this passage.
The KJV agrees with the TR saying logismoV meaning "imaginations." The NKJV has "arguments" because the NKJV translators corrupted this verse.
No, the KJV and the NKJV are not same because they differently translated for example of 2 Cor. 10:5. Go and check this passage.
The KJV agrees with the TR saying logismoV meaning "imaginations." The NKJV has "arguments" because the NKJV translators corrupted this verse.
How did they corrupt this ? was it a rendering based upon using varients from either CT/MT readings?
That would make the Greek text corrupted. I guess the KJVO folks forgot about what Christians did long before English was a language.to the KJV only person, anything that is different from the KJV is a "corruption"
circular reasoning works because circular reasoning works because....
Not to them. Their mantra is "Things that are different are not the same" and "If it ain't KJV it ain't Bible!"But wouldn't it be the same in the sense translators used exact same Greek text for their source?
Heres a series of indepth articles comparing the differences between the KJV and the NKJV, if anyone is interested. They are long reads as quite a number of verses are compared, often with references to which of the two lines of Bible versions (translations) support the differences.
IMHO, this gives better insight, regardless of which side you stand on the issue, than comparing a single verse, chosen at random.
NKJV Bible Babel in Proverbs - The Book of Proverbs - KJB compared to the NKJV http://brandplucked.webs.com/nkjvbabelinproverbs.htm
Another one : The Authorized King James Bible compared to the New KJV in 1 and 2 Chronicles. http://brandplucked.webs.com/nkjvchron.htm
And: NKJV same as KJB? http://brandplucked.webs.com/nkjvsameaskjb.htm