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Was Zacharias Deaf as well as Dumb?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by tinytim, Dec 13, 2006.

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  1. tinytim

    tinytim <img src =/tim2.jpg>

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    In this verse Zacharias is struck Dumb....

    Luke 1:20
    (20) And, behold, thou shalt be dumb, and not able to speak, until the day that these things shall be performed, because thou believest not my words, which shall be fulfilled in their season.

    In this verse, it appears that Zacharias is also deaf... (why would they have to sign to him if he could hear?)

    Luke 1:62
    (62) And they made signs to his father, how he would have him called.

    Now my questions are... assuming he was deaf:

    Was he deaf from birth?
    Was he struck deaf as well as dumb?
    Was his deafness cured at the same time his dumbness was, or did he remain deaf?

    Can "Dumb" also mean deaf?
    For it says, "And, behold, thou shalt be dumb, and not able to speak"
    It seems that there are 2 things going on here, why would he say "and"?
     
    #1 tinytim, Dec 13, 2006
  2. Jerome

    Jerome Well-Known Member
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    The signing could be explained as merely gesturing toward Zacharias, directing attention to him. Wyclif used beckoned.

    The dumb and unable to speak pairing could be explained as synonymous parallelism.
     
    #2 Jerome, Dec 14, 2006
  3. TaterTot

    TaterTot Guest

    I dont think he was deaf and here is why:
    *v.22 when he came out from being with the angel, the Bible says he was unable to speak with the people.
    *v.61yes, they motioned to him, but I cant help but think of how people rect nowdays to others who are unable to speak. Maybe I am reading into it, but you know, how people will yell at a deaf person, thinking that will help? Maybe they were motioning, since we have a hard time seperating deaf and mute. I say that because...
    *v.63 says nothing about his ears being opened, just his mouth and tongue freed.

    It could be that he was deaf, and really, I guess it doesnt matter. God showed his power in a mighty way once again.
     
    #3 TaterTot, Dec 14, 2006
  4. SBCPreacher

    SBCPreacher Active Member
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    Here's my 2 cents worth.

    I find this verse hilarious, 'Ole Zack was dumb, he wasn't able to speak, but he could hear just fine. The well-meaning folks thought they had to make some kind of sign language to him - because he couldn't speak?? You can almost picture him writing on his chalk board - "I can hear you just fine! Quit making those stupid signs to me!"

    Don't we kind of do the same thing when we come in contact with folks with some kind of handicap? Just because one thing doesn't work right, we think everything else doesn't work too.
     
    #4 SBCPreacher, Dec 14, 2006
  5. Scarlett O.

    Scarlett O. Moderator
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    Good question!

    I agree with Tator-Tot. People do try to overcompensate with blind or deaf or mute or retarded people.

    I have friends who shout at my retarded brother, even though he is not deaf! :BangHead: Go figure.

    And Zacharius would have to be making gestures and signals for several months there for he, himself to have been understood. Pershaps since he had to communcate that way, other unconsciously reciprocated.
     
    #5 Scarlett O., Dec 14, 2006
  6. npetreley

    npetreley New Member

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    Sorry, but my knee-jerk reaction was... who cares? ;)
     
    #6 npetreley, Dec 14, 2006
  7. tinytim

    tinytim <img src =/tim2.jpg>

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    Here is what I was thinking....
    If He did lose his both his hearing and his speaking out of disbelief.
    Then when God healed him, since it didn't mention healing his hearing, it has a practical application for us today.

    If God only healed his dumbness, then he was scarred with deafness the rest of his life.

    Sin scars... although God forgives, sin still scars...
    An alchoholic can be forgiven, but may still die from liver disease...
    A homosexual may be forgiven, but still die from AIDS.
    Etc.

    IF, and I admit that is a big IF, Zacharias was struck both dumb and deaf, but only healed of dumbness, then we see an example of the scarring of sin.

    BTW, some commentaries I have on e-sword say that he was deaf..
    Jamieson, Faussett, Brown; Matthew Henry; John Gill; Adam Clarke are just a few commentaries that state that he was deaf.


    Truth being, I doubt there is enough information to prove either way.
    But one thing we do know....

    :godisgood:
     
    #7 tinytim, Dec 14, 2006
    Last edited by a moderator: Dec 14, 2006
  8. TaterTot

    TaterTot Guest

    I dont see enough evidence there to say he was still deaf. Deaf people dont just normally and naturally speak as do hearing people, and we see that he did speak after his tongue was healed.
     
    #8 TaterTot, Dec 14, 2006
  9. tinytim

    tinytim <img src =/tim2.jpg>

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    Very good point Tater.. He would have had a hard time speaking, wouldn't he.
     
    #9 tinytim, Dec 14, 2006
  10. TaterTot

    TaterTot Guest

    :D (Things that make ya go...hmmmmm)
     
    #10 TaterTot, Dec 14, 2006
  11. Scarlett O.

    Scarlett O. Moderator
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    I still think it's an interesting question and makes for good discussion and sharpening of the old brain cells even if the answer if moot.
     
    #11 Scarlett O., Dec 14, 2006
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