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What does Acts 2:38 really mean ??

dan p

New Member
Hi to all , and what I will write needs to be examined carefully before you kill the messenger .

And what I am pointing out FIRST will be the Context of Act 2 .

In Acts 2:14 , it is Historical , and Dispensational FACT , that Peter is talking to the men of Judaea and those that dwell in Jerusalem .

Also in Acts 2:22 , and still Peter is addresing , " ye men of Israel " .

In Acts 2:17-21 is still future events that did not happen at Pentecost .

As Peter recapituates what has happened to Israel , from verse 22-40 .

Then Peter , is accussing the House of Israel of CRUCIFING Christ .

Then in verse 37 , the Jews say , " what shall we do ?"

Do about what ?? We killed Him , we can not bring Him back ??

Then in verse 38 , Peter says , Repent , and be Cleansed /Baptized , for the
FORGIVENESS of that SIN and murder , and ye shall reveive the Gift of the indwelling Holy Spirit .

I submit the following conclusions ;

#1 , This Hisitorical act , can ONLY apply to Israel !

#2 , Because they were the ones that killed Him !

#3 , It can NEVER happen again !

#4 , This is not for the Body of Christ !!

#5 , Verse 39 , is a promise to the children of those that are scatterred among the Roman empire .

What say you ?
 

TCassidy

Late-Administator Emeritus
Administrator
What say you ?
I say you have a flawed understanding of the verse.

"Then Peter said to them, “Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.""

You have to understand what the word "for" means.

"I went to the store for a loaf of bread."

This simple sentence simply means that I went to the store TO GET a loaf of bread.

"I went to the store for my wife."

Obviously I did not purchase my wife at the grocery store. I went to the store BECAUSE she PREVIOUSLY asked me to.

"Then Peter said to them, “Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for (BECAUSE OF) the (ALREADY RECEIVED) remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.""

No need to invent an additional dispensation in Acts. :)
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
"For" looks foward, not backward. We are baptized with a view toward the remission of sins.
Matthew 3:11 I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance:

Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

The Greek word is eis. It has a variety of meanings. It is translated "for" in Acts 2:38 and "unto" in Matthew 3:11. Why did John baptize? Did he baptize in order that the Pharisees would receive repentance, as you say--looking forward? Or did he baptize "unto" or "for" or "because" they had already repented. It looks back. He would only baptize if they had already repented. In fact he would not allow them to come near unless they had "first brought forth fruits suitable for repentance." He wanted to see the fruit, and then he would baptized them.

And so it is here. On the basis of, or because of their sins being remitted, Peter baptized them.
 

Gerhard Ebersoehn

Active Member
Site Supporter
Hi to all , and what I will write needs to be examined carefully before you kill the messenger .

And what I am pointing out FIRST will be the Context of Act 2 .

In Acts 2:14 , it is Historical , and Dispensational FACT , that Peter is talking to the men of Judaea and those that dwell in Jerusalem .

Also in Acts 2:22 , and still Peter is addresing , " ye men of Israel " .

In Acts 2:17-21 is still future events that did not happen at Pentecost .

As Peter recapituates what has happened to Israel , from verse 22-40 .

Then Peter , is accussing the House of Israel of CRUCIFING Christ .

Then in verse 37 , the Jews say , " what shall we do ?"

Do about what ?? We killed Him , we can not bring Him back ??

Then in verse 38 , Peter says , Repent , and be Cleansed /Baptized , for the
FORGIVENESS of that SIN and murder , and ye shall reveive the Gift of the indwelling Holy Spirit .

I submit the following conclusions ;

#1 , This Hisitorical act , can ONLY apply to Israel !

#2 , Because they were the ones that killed Him !

#3 , It can NEVER happen again !

#4 , This is not for the Body of Christ !!

#5 , Verse 39 , is a promise to the children of those that are scatterred among the Roman empire .

What say you ?

GE:
Acts 13 recorded the last chapter of this history.
 

RAdam

New Member
People always fail to take into account what Peter tells them soon after this. He said, "save yourselves from this untoward generation." That's really what that was all about. Peter tells the Jews here that they have condemned the Christ to die. They need to believe the gospel, repent, and be baptized. They need to be saved from this untoward generation. About 40 years later, the unbelieving Jews were subject to one of the most horrible sequence of events in human history, a time when Jew killed Jew and committed atrocities that would boggle the mind, all culminating in the desolation of Jerusalem, the temple, and the Jewish people by the Roman army. The believers, however, escaped.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
John the Baptist practiced baptism with a view toward the repentance (and conversion) of the Jewish people. "Eis" looks forward, not backward.
You have got to be kidding!
Your belief therefore, is this: Once John the Baptist baptized those wicked Pharisees, they just supernaturally received repentance whether or not they had actually repented.
 
No, this is not my belief. We are baptized with a view toward the remission of sins (Acts 2:38). John the Baptist practiced baptism with a view toward the repentance of the Jewish people (Mat. 3:11). When they repented, he baptized them, and they received the remission of sins. "Eis" always looks forward, not backward.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
No, this is not my belief. We are baptized with a view toward the remission of sins (Acts 2:38). John the Baptist practiced baptism with a view toward the repentance of the Jewish people (Mat. 3:11). When they repented, he baptized them, and they received the remission of sins. "Eis" always looks forward, not backward.
The verse doesn't say that. You have a problem:

Matthew 3:11 I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance:

Did they receive repentance when John baptized them or not?
 
Acts 2:38 teaches that baptism precedes the remission of sins. John's baptism also preceded the remission of sins. Colossians 2:11-13 also teaches that baptism precedes the forgiveness of sins. Jesus' blood was shed with a view toward (EIS) the remission of sins (Mat. 26:28). This verse clearly parallels Acts 2:38.
 

Dr. Walter

New Member
Acts 2:38 teaches that baptism precedes the remission of sins. John's baptism also preceded the remission of sins. Colossians 2:11-13 also teaches that baptism precedes the forgiveness of sins. Jesus' blood was shed with a view toward (EIS) the remission of sins (Mat. 26:28). This verse clearly parallels Acts 2:38.

False! The Greek preposition "eis" can be rightly translated "because of" and that is the proper translation here. For example in Matthew 12 Ninevah repented "eis" the preaching of Jonah! They did not repent in order for Jonah to preach but they repented BECAUSE OF the preaching of Jonah.

In Revelation some under the plagues bit their tongues "eis" pain. They did not bite their tongues IN ORDER TO get pain but BECAUSE OF pain of the plagues already upon them.

Colossians 2:11-13 does not teach this nonsense either. Paul makes it clear that external circumcision is a but a "sign" or "seal" of an already completed internal reality (Rom. 4:9-12). That reality is the new birth (Col. 2:11) and baptism fulfills the same role between type and antitype (Col. 2:12) as did circumcision. Baptism follows the new birth just as circumcision in Abraham followed the new birth. Baptism declares the already existence of new birth just as circumcision in Abraham declared the already existence of new birth FOURTEEN YEARS before he was circumcised (Rom. 4:12).
 

Dr. Walter

New Member
The Ninevites repented with a view toward the preaching of Jonah. Causal EIS is a falsehood.

When did the thought of repentance occur in the Ninevites BEFORE or AFTER Jonah began to preach?????? There could be no "view toward" BEFORE he preached!!!!!! Hence, it has to be causal in regard to his preaching. Sorry pal but you position makes no sense especially when it comes to baptism as baptism is a divine ceremony and the law of divine ceremonies throughout the Bible is consistent. They are types never sacramental (see Luke 5:12-15).
 

Thinkingstuff

Active Member
It means
38Peter replied, "Repent and be baptized, every one of you,

That Peter said to the crowd that everyone should "Repent" or
To make a change for the better as a result of remorse or contrition for one's sins
an to be "baptized" - Submurge one in water.


in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins
self explainitory.
And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit
.also self explanitory.
 

Dr. Walter

New Member
It means

That Peter said to the crowd that everyone should "Repent" or an to be "baptized" - Submurge one in water.


self explainitory. .also self explanitory.

Thinkingstuff, are you telling me, that it is YOUR POSITION that in baptism literal remission of sins occurs? Are you telling me that it is YOUR POSITION that you are baptized IN ORDER TO receive remission of sins literally rather than figuratively? Are you telling me it is YOUR POSITION that baptism is essential to receive the Holy Spirit????
 

Thinkingstuff

Active Member
Thinkingstuff, are you telling me, that it is YOUR POSITION that in baptism literal remission of sins occurs? Are you telling me that it is YOUR POSITION that you are baptized IN ORDER TO receive remission of sins literally rather than figuratively?

No. I'm telling you what this passage means. All of it is self explanitory. Are you saying its not self explanitory that you don't take the simple meaning of the passage? Are you going to add to scripture?
 

Dr. Walter

New Member
No. I'm telling you what this passage means. All of it is self explanitory. Are you saying its not self explanitory that you don't take the simple meaning of the passage? Are you going to add to scripture?

You make a good politician. What does it explain to you. What does it "mean" to you? Does it mean to you that you must be baptized in order to receive remission of sins? And if so, what does that mean to YOU?
 
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