What does the full meaning of propitiation mean to us?

I think it is a fine word. No need to correct the word of God.

I think it means that Christ shed his blood for all. He made atonement for the sins of the whole world. And now we have "...whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved."

Hebrews 2:9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.

 

It means God's wrath fell on Christ at calvary, so none will fall on those that trust him.

 

Good definition.

 

Yes, good definition. Something we can all agree on. (I would hope.)

 

2 Peter 2:1 But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destruction.

Has Christ not purchased those who reject Him as well?

When did God save you? Before creation, 2000 years ago, or some time during you life here on earth? Does not a sinner have to believe before the atonement becomes efficacious to him?

I think you and I agree, we were saved the same way. Where we disagree is I believe salvation is available to all men, though only the "many" will believe. I believe God foreknew those who would be saved and those who would not. I don't believe God decided who would and who would not.

 

It was either you or someone else that posted this on another thread and I disagreed that propitiation in the bible is the same as appeasing gods in pagan worship.

Appeasing the gods changed them -- the gods were volative and had bloodlust, so appeasing them meant you had to make them happy so they wouldn't strike you dead or bring some misfortune on you.

Propitiation in the Bible through Chirst is satisfying the righteousness of God. God's nature does not change and he still has wrath on sin. It's just that the saved person is no longer under that wrath, but God's wrath on sin remains.

I do not see the similarity between trying to keep pagan gods happy so they wouldn't kill you and satisfying the righteous judgment of God on sin.

Too late to think more on this....maybe more tomorrow or later. :sleeping_2:

 

It means Christ already became the Lamb of Calvary that paid for the sins of every man, Jew or Gentile, Roman or Greek, rich or poor, ruler or ruled, whose names are in the Lamb's Book of Life written before the foundation of the world, and therefore must be preached as Reigning King and Savior of all for whom He authored and finished salvation, whosoever and wheresoever they are.

 

It is basically the same. The difference is that in most religions, man attempts to turn aside the wrath of his gods by offering animal, human, or other sacrifices.

In Christianity God turned aside his own wrath by sacrificing His only begotten Son.

There are other subtle differences due to the fact that our God is not like pagan gods, but the meaning of the word is basically the same.

 

I don't agree with you on most of this. Many subject changes involved. The point is, they were denying the Lord that bought them. Whatever you think they were doing, not doing, gonna do, or not gonna do, they were bought. Were they saved?

 

Hello Jarthur001. This is a good time to ask are there any Calvinist here? Any that believes in "Limited Atonement", i.e. a "five pointer"? If so then they can no longer be a "five pointer" if they understand "propitiation".

There have been some good answers. If you don't mind I'll put in my two cents, with perhaps a couple of points that haven't yet been made. I John 2:1-2, " My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:
2. And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world."

I believe it helps to understand in God's salvation are three basic doctrines, viz. Redemption, Reconciliation, and Propitiation.

Sin came so provision had to be made for the "redemption" of our bodies, so redemption looks toward sin.

As sin has been identified in our bodies, next is "reconciliation " which looks toward man. God wants to reestablish a cordial relationship, so "Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.
18. And all things are of God, who hath reconciled us to himself by Jesus Christ, and hath given to us the ministry of reconciliation;
19. To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation," II Corinthians 5:17-19. So now we are "home free". But do we know how this happened?

So to answer your question about propitiation. "Is it a good word"? You bet, for it fortifies what all in the Body of Christ know. "Propitiation" looks toward God from which our salvation comes. God is appeased, or satisfied, or "propitiated" for the work Christ fulfilled that was required to save all sinners, which is every one ever born of sinful man and woman.

And what is this requirement that was placed before our Lord for "reconciliation" to come? Christ Jesus from heaven revealed this information to Paul for our understanding of how we today are saved. Through the faith of Jesus Christ, by way of the "mercy seat" we come, for God provided a "propitiation - atonement" by the sprinkling of Jesus Christ's blood on the "mercy seat". God sees Christ when looking at the "mercy seat" that covers the ark (coffin) of His broken Law.

If we believe what He tells us today "Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and we will be saved", the saving blood is activated placing us with Jesus Christ at the Cross.

 

I want to be very clear: I am not denying that Jesus was a propitiation for sin or that there were blood sacrifices commanded by God as atonement.

Also, the pagan origin of the word does not mean it necessarily carries the same meaning, so that argument is not a good one, imo.

I can see the parallels between appeasing the false gods and the propititation of Christ, but I think the differences are greater and I think the similarities are more apparent than actual.

This is what I was trying to get across:

Also, appeasing the gods in pagan religions was man's idea based on belief in doing something to avert the gods' anger and/or gain favor with the gods, whereas in the Bible, God's righteousness required the blood sacrifice and it was his command to do this.

 

I don't see how you come to this conclusion. His wrath is turned aside from the elect, which is limited atonement.

2. And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world."

This only presents a problem if you interpret "whole world" to mean every man without exception. "Whole world" also means every man without distinction, that is, from among every tribe, nation, etc.

 

You are talking about His wrath, and I'm talking about judgment. How did the elect become the elect? They believed God as they lived, whether Abel, Moses, David or John the Baptist, or we today, or those to be in the "tribulation". These before Damascus Road and after the "rapture are justified different than we, and I believe this must be what you are speaking to. If so, then you are of the "great commission" that was preached at Pentecost. They were saved "conditionally" as the shedding of blood of animals could only cover for a "limited" time, which we know was "one" year for the nation of Israel. If you believe the blood of Christ is no better than that of animals, then you must endure until the end, just as all before this "grace" dispensation of God. But since you believe in "limited atonement", Full Atonement cannot be accessed for His shed blood at the Cross was after all "limited".

As said, if "propitiation" is understood, it's not possible to hold today to Christ's shed blood only having a "limited" duration, or being diluted allowing God the Father to see the sinner as they are instead of Christ Jesus, in whom there is no sin.

God Love's us, so we justified are predestined to salvation. Some of us choose Him for the life is in the blood, and He is life. When we do this we know we were foreknown, and those that do not are also foreknown.

It has to mean every person for He says it is available to all, but all do not choose to take advantage of the free gift today, and all did not believe God in the past dispensations, and all will not in the coming "tribulation period". If we don't believe the "everlasting gospel of God", then we won't believe what His "everlasting gospel" tells us to do, while we live, to gain "everlasting life".

There is Power in the Blood, and today He'll Passover when He sees the "blood of Jesus Christ", and we are in the Body of Christ Church. This is "propitiation" found on the Mercy Seat, and if I understand you correctly you find it to be defective.