Featured What innate Divine attribute did Christ set aside at the incarnation?

This bunny trail came up in another topic:

So I thought I would take a stand (probably an incorrect one), but I am prepared to defend the premise that Jesus Christ was still Fully God at his incarnation and had all of his innate Divine Attributes (Omniscience, Perfect Love, etc.).

So what attribute of God do you think Jesus did not have while "in the flesh"?

[Let's see where this leads.]

 

Do you have a verse for that?

 

Since most of this has been fairly general comments, I wanted to try and look at something more specific:

• [John 1:43-51 NIV] 43 The next day Jesus decided to leave for Galilee. Finding Philip, he said to him, "Follow me." 44 Philip, like Andrew and Peter, was from the town of Bethsaida. 45 Philip found Nathanael and told him, "We have found the one Moses wrote about in the Law, and about whom the prophets also wrote--Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph." 46 "Nazareth! Can anything good come from there?" Nathanael asked. "Come and see," said Philip. 47 When Jesus saw Nathanael approaching, he said of him, "Here truly is an Israelite in whom there is no deceit." 48 "How do you know me?" Nathanael asked. Jesus answered, "I saw you while you were still under the fig tree before Philip called you." 49 Then Nathanael declared, "Rabbi, you are the Son of God; you are the king of Israel." 50 Jesus said, "You believe because I told you I saw you under the fig tree. You will see greater things than that." 51 He then added, "Very truly I tell you, you will see 'heaven open, and the angels of God ascending and descending on' the Son of Man."

Jesus demonstrated omnipresence.
Jesus was PHYSICALLY in one location and claimed to see what was happening in another location.

• I saw ... Jesus did not indicate that he merely KNEW of the events transpiring elsewhere, but claimed to personally see them.
• Jesus did not indicate that “My Father has revealed”, but clearly states that Jesus himself is the source of this knowledge.
• Jesus does not credit the Holy Spirit with revealing this to him, but claims himself as the source.
• Jesus does not claim to have had a vision, but simply states that Jesus saw it.
• The implication appears to be that Jesus was both HERE and THERE at the same time. That suggests Jesus retained his Divine Omnipresence even as he existed in a human body.

My conclusion is that Jesus demonstrated that he retained the Divine attribute of OMNIPRESENCE even while in human form.

 

In context ...

[John 6:35-40 NASB] 35 Jesus said to them, "I am the bread of life; he who comes to Me will not hunger, and he who believes in Me will never thirst. 36 "But I said to you that you have seen Me, and yet do not believe. 37 "All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out. 38 "For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me. 39 "This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day. 40 "For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him will have eternal life, and I Myself will raise him up on the last day."

How does that verse indicate that Jesus "lay aside His divine right to use all of his attributes"?



As an aside, the next two verses state the will of "Him who sent me" ...

1. of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day
2. everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him will have eternal life, and I Myself will raise him up on the last day.

... so, is that not also the will of God the Son?