Where do Scrripture ever define sin as missing the mark? Not that I 'entirely' disagree, but still, that is not a Scriptural definition.
I'll use one of the scriptures you posted.
Joh*15:24 If I had not done among them the works which none other man did, they had not had
sin: but now have they both seen and hated both me and my Father.
amartia hamartia ham-ar-tee'-ah
from 264; a sin (properly abstract):--offence, sin(-ful).
See Greek 264
Strong's Greek Dictionary
264. hamartano
amartanw hamartano ham-ar-tan'-o
perhaps from 1 (as a negative particle) and the base of 3313; properly,
to miss the mark (and so not share in the prize), i.e. (figuratively) to err, especially (morally) to sin:--for your faults, offend, sin, trespass.
So yes, it is scriptural to define sin as "missing the mark". Of course it's in the context of God's mark.
Missing the mark means that you have not achieved the righteousness, holiness and perfection of God. (and you never will because you are not God) That is why we must rely on the righteousness of Christ.