Jack Matthews
New Member
Just curious. I've heard people who claim to believe in the inerrancy and infallibility of the scripture argue against tongues and interpretation as spiritual gifts for today. However, I cannot find anyplace in the New Testament that specifically says this gift will cease when the canon is complete, or that it is only associated with the "apostolic dispensation" (another doctrine which isn't taught in scripture but that's the subject of another thread) and isn't meant for today, while other gifts mentioned in the New Testament are.
And the second question would be, that if there isn't scriptural support for its having ceased, then aren't we in violation of the scripture for standing against its use?
And the second question would be, that if there isn't scriptural support for its having ceased, then aren't we in violation of the scripture for standing against its use?