Well, I'm going to take a weak crack at your quiz, at least in part, off of the top of my head, without studying this in detail, specifically.John of Japan said:I looked forward to our second furlough and realized I might be asked some things, so I decided to research the issue. I read books on both sides, but something was missing, and that was a systematic treatment of the Word of God from the Word of God. I am very disappointed that so little thought has been given to what the Bible teaches about preservation.
First of all, I sought to rid myself of any prejudice on either side of the issue. Then I read through the KJV and marked in pink every single passage that dealt with the Word of God itself, marking in red particular passages that dealt with preservation. There are literally hundreds of such verses. I still have that Bible.
I then exegeted the passages and compiled the verses, noted trends and patterns, and put it all into an outline which ended up being 18 pages long. I highly urge this practice for all of you. After all, we are Baptists who believe in the Bible as the sole rule of faith and practice, right? How can anyone possibly claim to have a Biblical position without studying thoroughly and systematically what the Bible says about a subject?
Here is a quiz to see if you really know the Bible on preservation.
(1) In what specific location is the Word of God perfectly preserved?
(2) Who was used by God in the OT to preserve the Word of God? (At least three names.)
(3) What class of people in the Bible is commanded to preserve the Word of God?
(4) Give two passages in the NT where a sentence is translated within the text from an original language.
If you can't answer these questions, forget it, you have no doctrine of preservation. I'm not trying to exalt myself. I'm just saying, the answers are all there in the Bible, but you must find them.
Question #1. This is not stated in either the KJV or NKJV. I cannot speak of another version.
Scripture says the LORD will preserve His words in Ps. 12: 6-7. It does not give the location where this will be done, to my knowledge. Ps. 119:89 says the words are "settled" in heaven, but that is not the same word.
Question #2. As to the written word, I believe Ezra was one, when he 'found' the Law of God, with Moses to be another; Joshua a third; and Isaiah a fourth, but there is a bit of interpretation in this. The phrase of "the word of God" does not occur in this exact manner, with this stated, that I see. Moses was responsible for putting the specific decalogue into the Ark of the Covenant. Joshua wrote into the Book of the Law, and Isaiah was told that his words would not depart "forevermore". (Isa. 59:11)
Question #3. I have heard this said to be the priests or Levites, if memory sreves, but am not actually sure about this, exactly. The 'Scribes' had something to do with this, as well. (Jer. 8:8; 36:21)
Question #4. There are at least two instances where phrases of more than one word are said to be "interpreted" (Mk. 5:41; 15:34), and at least three instances in the NT where a word is "interpreted" into more than one word. (Mt 1:23; Mk. 15:22; Ac. 4:36) However, a word being rendered "translated", in this sense and usage, does not occur in Scripture in the KJV, as far as I know.
But it does properly occur several times in the NKJV, including once in the OT in Ez. 4:7, meaning that the NKJV is the best "translated" English version one can use, no??
:laugh: :laugh:
Ed
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