EdSutton said:
First, I deny that "once saved, always saved" whatever that (or any caricature of the same) may actually mean is, an "historically novel teaching" at all.
You can deny it all you want, but it's a historical fact.
And once again, you also overlook the difference between salvation and discipleship, and hence, the "free-gift" and "rewards", attempting to roll it all up into one conglomerate.
No one in church history tried to separate salvation and discipleship (ie, actually
following Christ) until within the past couple of hundred years...unless you want to count the Gnostics. But alas the dichotomy between salvation and discipleship is among many other such unscriptural dichotomies proffered by those who peddle antinomianism. (I know, I use to teach the same things)
I'd suggest you re-read my post # 58, on page 6, of this thread, without a pre-conceived theological lens, and consider it again, with an open Bible.
Talk about the pot calling the kettle black. I was raised Southern Baptist and used to believe the same as you do. In other words, I used to share
your 'pre-conceived theological lens'. However, with time I had more and more doubts that I could ignore the seemingly clear meaning of bothersome texts while trying to squeeze them into my doctrinal grid. I then considered again those long held views with an open Bible and finally rejected them.
Also, for now at least the ninth time on the BB, I ask, Where does the Bible ever use the words "repent of/from (one's) sin(s)", at all? And as I've said the same number of times, I do believe and teach "repentance". For the Bible teaches repentance. But nowhere does Scripture use the words "repent from your sins" as far as I've been able to find.
"..lest, when I come again, my God will humble me among you, and I shall mourn for many who have
sinned before and have
not repented of the uncleanness, fornication, and lewdness which they have practiced." (2 Cor 12:21)
--"Uncleanness", "fornication" and "lewdness" are all
sins, are they not? Isn't Paul suggesting these folks need to repent of these things?
"And I gave her time to
repent of her sexual immorality, and she did not repent. Indeed I cast her into a sickbed, and those who commit adultery with her into great tribulation unless they
repent of their deeds" (Rev 2:21-22)
--Isn't "sexual immorality" a
sin? Isn't Christ giving this woman (however interpreted) the opportunity to repent of this particular
sin? Doesn't He say also that He'll cast others into tribulation unless they repent of their
sinful "deeds"?
"But the rest of mankind, who were not killed by these plagues, did not
repent of the works of their hands....and they did not
repent of their murders or their sorceries or their sexual immorality or their thefts." (Rev 9:20-21)
--I'm pretty sure that idolatry, murder, "sorcery", sexual immorality, and theft are all
sins, wouldn't you agree?
So even though the exact phrase, "repent of your sins", may not be found verbatim in the Bible, Scripture is indeed clear that one is to repent of his sins. (I suppose one could go ahead and deny the Trinity as that word isn't found in the Bible either...wait...there are people who already do that for that precise reason...)
Nor are the words "unrepenting" or "unrepentant" to be found anywhere in Scripture (KJV, RV, and ASV), although I have no concordance to tell me about other versions. Your turn to show me where this wording is to be found, outside of a large number of pulpits!
Ask and you shall receive...
"But in accordance with your hardness and
impenitent heart you are treasuring up for yourself wrath in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgement of God" (Romans 2:5)
The word "impenitent"
means "unrepentant". It is a translation of the Greek word '
ametanoetos' which of course conveys the opposite idea of '
metanoia' which is 'repentance'. (Never mind all the synonomous terms such as "hardness", "stubborn" etc) So there you have it: The impenitent (or unrepentant) man is indeed mentioned in the Bible and Paul teaches that such a one is treasuring up for himself wrath, not merely loss of rewards (Read Romans 2:5-10).
And I believe you may be making an 'artificial' distinction in the Greek tenses, at least, as well. The Greek is more of a 'continual present', rather than our English concept of "present tense"
Indeed it
is "more of a 'continual present'". One must
continue to "walk in the light" if one wants to
continue to have his sins cleansed.
The verse (I Jo. 1:7) itself speaks of fellowship, not relationship.
And you are making a false dichotomy between the two where John does not. I notice you didn't respond to the second half of my post, but I'll type slower this time (while adding some comments in double brackets)....
In other words a present tense "walking in the light" (being in
'fellowship') with God is necessary for a present tense cleansing from sin. And lest one think that one can have a genuine
'relationship' with God while living in unrepentant and uncleansed sin...
"Nowby this we know that we
know Him,
if we keep His commandments. He who says 'I know Him', but does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. But whoever keeps His word, truly the love of God is perfected in him. By this we know that we are in Him." 1 John 2:3-5.
[[
Note: Do folks honestly think that the Apostle John is teaching that one can have a saving
'relationship' with Christ without '
knowing' Him?? If so, I suggest those folks go back and re-read the entire epistle without any 'pre-conceived theological lenses'. ]]
And this of course is perfectly consistent with the father's words in the parable of the Prodigal in which he characterizes he who was living in rebellion as being both 'lost' and 'dead' to him. If we don't continue to abide (or 'stand') by faith 'in the Vine' (Christ), we are in danger of being cut off and cast out as branches (John 15:6 and Romans 11:22).
[ [
Note--if we don't abide,
we're cast out as branches and
burned; we don't merely lose "rewards". (John 15:6) ]]
"Whoever abides in Him does not sin. Whoever sins has neither seen Him nor
known Him" 1 John 3:6
"He who keeps His commandments abides in Him, and He in him." 1 John 3:24
Which brings us back to the OP: Present tense forgiveness is contingent on our actually being in (abiding/standing/walking/etc) Christ, which includes keeping His commandments, and confessing our sins when we fail to do so (1 John 1:9) and repententing of those sins.
[[
Note: So unless one honestly thinks John and the other Scripture writers are teaching we can have a 'relationship' with Christ without actually
being in Christ (abiding, etc), then any proposed dichotomy between relationship and fellowship doesn't exist]]