When did Jesus eat the "Last Supper"?

[robycop3]

I am engaged in a discussion on a Yahoo board with Dr. Thomas Cassidy, who should be familiar to many of you. Our discussion began about the KJV's rendering of "Easter" in Acts 12:4, but has evolved into a discussion about the Preparation Day mentioned in the Scriptures dealing with Jesus' crucifixion. Dr. Cassidy maintains that two different factions of Jews observed the paschal meal at different times, while I maintain that the day of preparation was for the holy convocation that was to follow the paschal meal as set forth in Exodus 12-and that the WHOLE PERIOD of time that includes the paschal meal AND the days of Unleavened Bread that follow it is called Passover, and NOT just the paschal meal itself. I've been told this by several Jews whom I've asked. I believe this is what John 18:28, KJV, is talking about: Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover.

I believe this Scripture refers to the unleavened bread that was to be eaten for the next 7 days after the paschal meal, as, plainly by Scripture, Jesus and His disciples had already eaten their paschal meal BEFORE Jesus was arrested, and I don't believe JESUS observed the meal at the wrong time. And there's no Scriptural indication that any of the Jews in Jerusalem were observing paschal on any other day.As for the preparation day it was for the HIGH SABBATH that was to begin at sunset. I believe that Jesus ate the paschal, was arrested & crucified, died, and was laid in the tomb within the 24-hour period that began at sunset the previous day. As for the High sabbath, it was the day of holy convocation as set forth in Exodus 12:16-"And in the first day there shall be an holy convocation, and in the seventh day there shall be an holy convocation to you; no manner of work shall be done in them, save that which every man must eat, that only may be done of you.

I believe the Jews were hasting to finish up their work, such as conducting their business, washing their clothes, and preparing their food for the next day, which began at sunset; thus their desire that the crucified men should be dead & their bodies taken down before sunset.

Here's Dr. Cassidy's take upon it:

"Here is your opportunity for a little study, Roby. The Jews calculated the beginning and ending of a day differently, even among themselves.
From the writings of Josephus, the Mishna, and other historic Jewish
source literature we learn that the Jews of northern Palestine
calculated days from sunrise to sunrise. That, of course, included
Galilee where Jesus and the disciples had grown up. The Pharisees, on
the other hand, and those from southern Palestine (Benjamin and Judah),used the sunset to sunset means of determining when a day began. Now weknow from our knowledge of geography that Jerusalem is in the south.
This had the practical effect of the people gathered in Jerusalem from
all over Palestine, to celebrate Passover on two adjoining days and alsoallowing the temple sacrifices to be made over a four hour period ratherthan just two, and helped to keep the northern people separate from thesouthern and thus avoiding regional and other types of clashes betweenthe two very different peoples. (Remember the southern Jews distain for northern Jews, "Can any good thing come out of Galilee?"

"So, it is simple to see that Jesus and the disciples considered Passover(the preparation day) to have started at sunrise and to have ended at sunrise the next day! The southern Jews, however, considered the preparation day to begin at sundown. Therefore, by God's Sovereign
design, Jesus could celebrate the Passover with the disciples, and still be taken for sacrifice at the very time the southern Jews were
sacrificing their lambs."

It is obvious that when He ate the meal with the disciples, it was purposely done early so they could enjoy that one last time of fellowship, the Lord's Supper could be instituted (the Lord's Supper is NOT a Passover Seder, if it were it would only be done ONCE per year, not "as oft as ye do it) Judas could be identified, etc.

I hope that some of the wise heads here can tell me if I'm wrong or not, or if Doc Cas was wrong. If I find I am wrong, I shall be more than happy to admit it to Doc Cas and confess I was wrong, but if he's wrong, I won't really worry about whether he will admit it or not.

I'm not asking that anyone be judgemental; I only want to know if there are any FACTS I've missed.

C.P.R.

 

[Grasshopper]

I believe I read a book by John MacArthur that made the same point. Some observed passover earlier(24 hrs) than others.

 

[Dr. Bob]

Doc has a valid point. While Northern Jews from Galilee were eating the passover meal (as was Jesus with His talmidim) the rest of Judaism would have been carrying out normal activities.

Haven't you wondered about why the sanhedrin and the priests were NOT having passover when Judas (who left the Galilean feast) came to see them, to arrange the betrayal?

IF they were ALL observing the same passover, those men would all be at their homes observing it as well. They would certainly NOT have been disobeying the Law!

BTW, mark down that Dr. Cassidy will seldom be in error of historical facts. Now he's got some other quirks (unlike me; I'm perfect) but you can trust his view here.

 

[robycop3]

Thanx for your responses, Grasshopper & Dr. Bob. I was going on the fact that all the Scriptures pertaining to Jesus' last days as a man do not mention but ONE paschal meal time, with no indications that anyone involved reckoned his/her day to begin at any time but sunset.

I also considered the fact that JESUS would NOT have observed the paschal meal at an incorrect time, and that I believe He purposely died during the 24-hour period of the paschal meal day in order to become the Lamb of God, the one-time,all-time Paschal for all mankind.

And also, I am told by several Jews I know, that the entire week of the paschal meal AND the days of unleavened bread are ALL called Passover, and have been thus called passover in English, pascha in Greek, and pecach in Hebrew since time immemorial. Thus, I took it that John 18:28 was referring to the unleavened bread that's part of the week-long Passover observance, seeing as how the preceeding Scriptures clearly indicate Jesus and His disciples had already observed the paschal meal when He was arrested. I believed the Jews who arrested Him were wishing to remain undefiled so they could continue in their observance of Passover Week, and eat the unleavened bread which was an item of the observance.

What you said about the priests' not eating the paschal meal has been suggested to me, but I wonder if they actually WERE observing it when Judas came to them. After all, they WERE together in a group. Maybe they had finished their meal more quickly, as we see Jesus had a lot to say to His men during the meal, and it took Judas some time to reach the temple or wherever else they may have assembled. maybe the priests began their meal immediately after sunset while Jesus may have not.

It's not Doc Cas's HISTORY I dispute: it's the fact that SCRIPTURE, the highest written authority, makes no mention of the paschal's being eaten at any other time, and that the preparation day was for a HIGH SABBATH, which, by Exodus 12, was the holy convocation which was to follow the paschal meal. If that high sabbath had been the paschal meal day itself, I believe Scripture would have mentioned it by name. Doc Cas insists that the Jews who arrested Jesus were preparing to observe paschal THE EVENING AFTER THEY ARRESTED JESUS, his evidence being John 18:28,and I disagree, saying the passover mentioned in that verse is the unleavened bread, not the paschal meal. This is because the Scriptures all say THE DAY of the paschal had arrived, and Jesus plainly said, in giving His instructions to Peter and John, that He would observe Passover IN THIS MAN'S HOUSE, & He did so BEFORE he was arrested. There's no other paschal day indicated in these Scriptures except "THE" day observed by Jesus. The whole WEEK was called passover.

However, if I've misunderstood the Scriptures, I shall admit my error. But I've read eleven English BVs cover-to-cover many times, and cannot find any indication that the paschal in question was observed at any other time besides when Jesus observed it, at least in the Jerusalem area, where the entire set of events occurred.

 

[R. Charles Blair]

You are correct to want SCRIPTURE for each point.
Have you considered Numbers 9:6-13 at this point?
Those going on a journey, or defiled by reason of a dead body, were allowed to eat the Passover one month later, on 14th Zif (Iyar). Jesus would by the actual time of THE meal be both - defiled by reason of His own dead body, and away on a journey. To have eaten a month later would have been pointless; "There's no sacrifice since THE
sacrifice." Therefore in keeping with the north/south "civil war" and as a Man of Galilee, He partook with His closest family, the church He built during His earthly ministry, on Wednesday night (our calendar), so that He could die on 14th Nisan at the right hour (3 p. m., evening sacrifice) of the right day of the right month of the right year (Jubilee) and thus put an end to all the sacrificial system by fulfilling every detail. Then three days/nights (parts in some cases), and Sunday morning resurrection to fulfill the first-fruits, bringing out with Him a "handful of first-ripe grain" as in Mt. 27:51-53. You're doing some great research.

R. Charles Blair - Ro. 8:28