franklinmonroe
Active Member
Genesis 37 is often cited as a "classic example" for the establishment of the so-called Documentary Hypothesis or JEPD Theory. The alleged problem that supposedly arises in this verse being that the first "they" would grammatically refer to the Midianites, rather than the brothers, and thus it is the Midianites that draw out and sell Joseph to Ishamaelites. The second "they" would refer directly back to the word "Ishmaelites". This fact is seemingly challenged later in verse 36 where it is stated that "Midianites" sell Joseph to Potipher in Egypt.
I want to focus on the issue of the antecedents of "they". What responsibility does the English translation have for the confusion? Are there ambiguities in the Hebrew? Can these renderings below be justified by underlying ancient text, or is there some significant interpretation occurring here? --
Then there passed by Midianites merchantmen; and they drew and lifted up Joseph out of the pit, and sold Joseph to the Ishmeelites for twenty [pieces] of silver: and they brought Joseph into Egypt. (KJV)
Then Midianite traders passed by. And they drew Joseph up and lifted him out of the pit, and sold him to the Ishmaelites for twenty shekelsfn of silver. They took Joseph to Egypt. (ESV)
And Midianitish men, merchants, passed by; and they drew and lifted up Joseph out of the pit, and sold Joseph to the Ishmaelites for twenty silver-pieces; and they brought Joseph to Egypt. (Darby)
And Midianite merchantmen pass by and they draw out and bring up Joseph out of the pit, and sell Joseph to the Ishmaelites for twenty silverlings, and they bring Joseph into Egypt. (YLT)
Then Midianite traders passed by. And they drew Joseph up and lifted him out of the pit, and sold him to the Ishmaelites for twenty shekelsfn of silver. They took Joseph to Egypt. (ESV)
And Midianitish men, merchants, passed by; and they drew and lifted up Joseph out of the pit, and sold Joseph to the Ishmaelites for twenty silver-pieces; and they brought Joseph to Egypt. (Darby)
And Midianite merchantmen pass by and they draw out and bring up Joseph out of the pit, and sell Joseph to the Ishmaelites for twenty silverlings, and they bring Joseph into Egypt. (YLT)
I want to focus on the issue of the antecedents of "they". What responsibility does the English translation have for the confusion? Are there ambiguities in the Hebrew? Can these renderings below be justified by underlying ancient text, or is there some significant interpretation occurring here? --
Then Midianite traders passed by; so the brothers pulled Joseph up and lifted him out of the pit, and sold him to the Ishmaelites for twenty shekels of silver. And they took Joseph to Egypt. (NKJV)
So when the Ishmaelites, who were Midianite traders, came by, Joseph’s brothers pulled him out of the cistern and sold him to them for twenty piecesfn of silver. And the traders took him to Egypt. (NLT)
So when the Midianite merchants came by, his brothers pulled Joseph up out of the cistern and sold him for twenty shekels of silver to the Ishmaelites, who took him to Egypt. (NIV)
When Midianite traders passed by, his brothers pulled Joseph out of the pit and sold him for 20 pieces of silver to the Ishmaelites, who took Joseph to Egypt. (HCSB)
So when the Ishmaelites, who were Midianite traders, came by, Joseph’s brothers pulled him out of the cistern and sold him to them for twenty piecesfn of silver. And the traders took him to Egypt. (NLT)
So when the Midianite merchants came by, his brothers pulled Joseph up out of the cistern and sold him for twenty shekels of silver to the Ishmaelites, who took him to Egypt. (NIV)
When Midianite traders passed by, his brothers pulled Joseph out of the pit and sold him for 20 pieces of silver to the Ishmaelites, who took Joseph to Egypt. (HCSB)