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Why Does the RCC have extra Books In their canon?
Have you ever heard of the Septuagint? It's a Greek translation of the Hebrew O.T. and it predates Christianity. In fact, many N.T. quotes of the O.T. are from the Septuagint and that is why they don't exactly coincide when we compare them in the English Bible. The Septuagint contained those extra books.As neither jesus nor the jews know any other than Protestant OT books, and early church ONLY know and confirmed the protestant NT books?
Have you ever heard of the Septuagint? It's a Greek translation of the Hebrew O.T. and it predates Christianity. In fact, many N.T. quotes of the O.T. are from the Septuagint and that is why they don't exactly coincide when we compare them in the English Bible. The Septuagint contained those extra books.
Really? That will come as quite a surprise to Jerome, who translated it into the Latin Vulgate, which in turn formed the basic framework for the 1611 Authorized Version.Heard of it, have used it to study, But it was NOT included as being part of deciding canon of scriptures!
No they didn't. The Septuagint was written 250 B.C. The Apocryphal books were written long after that, some of them even after Christ was born. None of them were written before 250 B.C., the date of the writing of the Septuagint. Thus your information is false. The original Septuagint never had any of the Apocryphal book in it, though later copies written well after the birth of Christ and the time of the Apostles may have.Have you ever heard of the Septuagint? It's a Greek translation of the Hebrew O.T. and it predates Christianity. In fact, many N.T. quotes of the O.T. are from the Septuagint and that is why they don't exactly coincide when we compare them in the English Bible. The Septuagint contained those extra books.
No the original Septuagint didn't have the deuterocanonical books. That's why they are called "deutero" meaning second, or coming after. However, most people agree that they had been written by the First Century. There are no direct quotes from them in the N.T. but there are several places where the similarity is so great that we know the N.T. writer must have had them in mind. For example:No they didn't. The Septuagint was written 250 B.C. The Apocryphal books were written long after that, some of them even after Christ was born. None of them were written before 250 B.C., the date of the writing of the Septuagint. Thus your information is false. The original Septuagint never had any of the Apocryphal book in it, though later copies written well after the birth of Christ and the time of the Apostles may have.
But even that is not for sure.
You must have ordered the Protestant version. :laugh:My copy of the Septuagint does not have the Apocrypha in it.
Because it's right, of course. :laugh:Why should I trust your information?
No they didn't. The Septuagint was written 250 B.C. The Apocryphal books were written long after that, some of them even after Christ was born. None of them were written before 250 B.C., the date of the writing of the Septuagint. Thus your information is false. The original Septuagint never had any of the Apocryphal book in it, though later copies written well after the birth of Christ and the time of the Apostles may have.
But even that is not for sure.
My copy of the Septuagint does not have the Apocrypha in it. Why should I trust your information?
think the point is that canon of the OT blooks was fixed by the Jews before time of Christ, same books we have in protestant bibles!
NT books agreed uon as inspired same as our bible, not RCC ones!
Some of the deuteros are found in the Dead Sea Scrolls. Hmmm....
Do you accept the NT cannon? Because if you do, then you must necessarily accept the authority of those councils that set the NT cannon - the RCC. So, to take this to its logical conclusion; if you accept the NT cannon as set forth by the councils of the Catholic Church, then you must (at least tactitly) accept that OT cannon used by that same Church.
WM
Some of the deuteros are found in the Dead Sea Scrolls. Hmmm....
Do you accept the NT cannon? Because if you do, then you must necessarily accept the authority of those councils that set the NT cannon - the RCC. So, to take this to its logical conclusion; if you accept the NT cannon as set forth by the councils of the Catholic Church, then you must (at least tactitly) accept that OT cannon used by that same Church.
WM
You probably have some similarities, but not direct quotes. You sound like Moriah trying to convince me that Romans 3:9-12 was quoted from Ecclesiastes. It won't work. Similarity does not even mean they referred to it.No the original Septuagint didn't have the deuterocanonical books. That's why they are called "deutero" meaning second, or coming after. However, most people agree that they had been written by the First Century. There are no direct quotes from them in the N.T. but there are several places where the similarity is so great that we know the N.T. writer must have had them in mind. For example:
Matthew 6:7 is from Sirach 7:14.
Romans 9:21 is from Wisdom 15:7.
Romans 11:34 is from Wisdom 9:13.
2 Corinthians 9:7 is from Sirach 35:9-11.
Hebrews 11:35 is from 1 Maccabees 7:7-9.
You're entitled to your opinion. Let the reader of these and other passages decide what is "ripped off" and what is original.You probably have some similarities, but not direct quotes. You sound like Moriah trying to convince me that Romans 3:9-12 was quoted from Ecclesiastes. It won't work. Similarity does not even mean they referred to it.
They can't unless you back up your claim with evidence.You're entitled to your opinion. Let the reader of these and other passages decide what is "ripped off" and what is original.
Technically and historically, there was no "Roman Catholic Church" as it is today until Constantine united the Roman state and paganism with the "church".
The "setting" of the canon was a consensual process that took place over many years; it was not something that was decided by a hierarchy.
Sure they can. All the evidence you need, and all there is, is to compare the passages. For example, compare:They can't unless you back up your claim with evidence.
withWomen received their dead by resurrection. Some were tortured, refusing to accept release, that they might rise again to a better life. Hebrews 11:35. (RSV)
Anyone who wants to dismiss the similarities as coincidental may do so but hardly anyone would dismiss them unless they were trying to prove that 2 Maccabees had not been written by the time Hebrews was written. And by the way, I cited 1 Maccabees 7 earlier and it should have been 2 Maccabees 7. Sorry about the error.After the first brother had died in this way, they brought forward the second for their sport. They tore off the skin of his head with the hair, and asked him, "Will you eat rather than have your body punished limb by limb?" He replied in the language of his fathers, and said to them, "No." Therefore he in turn underwent tortures as the first brother had done. And when he was at his last breath, he said, "You accursed wretch, you dismiss us from this present life, but the King of the universe will raise us up to an everlasting renewal of life, because we have died for his laws." 2 Maccabees 7:7-9. (RSV)
Maccabees, probably the most useful of the apocryphal books, were historical in nature. They give history, not always accurate, but at least it is some history. There is no quote here. Historical references are about as common as taking half a dozen different history books, looking at the same event in each of them, and concluding that each of them wrote from one source. That is what you are saying. What an absurd conclusion.Sure they can. All the evidence you need, and all there is, is to compare the passages. For example, compare:
with Anyone who wants to dismiss the similarities as coincidental may do so but hardly anyone would dismiss them unless they were trying to prove that 2 Maccabees had not been written by the time Hebrews was written. And by the way, I cited 1 Maccabees 7 earlier and it should have been 2 Maccabees 7. Sorry about the error.