Why God Flooded The World?

[Hark]

Why did God flooded the world?

He said it twice; before the flood and after the flood as to why He did it.

He said this in bold before the flood.

Genesis 6:5 And God saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually. 6 And it repented the Lord that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart. 7 And the Lord said, I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth; both man, and beast, and the creeping thing, and the fowls of the air; for it repenteth me that I have made them. 8 But Noah found grace in the eyes of the Lord.

He said this in bold after the flood.

Genesis 8:18 And Noah went forth, and his sons, and his wife, and his sons' wives with him: 19 Every beast, every creeping thing, and every fowl, and whatsoever creepeth upon the earth, after their kinds, went forth out of the ark. 20 And Noah builded an altar unto the Lord; and took of every clean beast, and of every clean fowl, and offered burnt offerings on the altar. 21 And the Lord smelled a sweet savour; and the Lord said in his heart, I will not again curse the ground any more for man's sake; for the imagination of man's heart is evil from his youth; neither will I again smite any more every thing living, as I have done. 22 While the earth remaineth, seedtime and harvest, and cold and heat, and summer and winter, and day and night shall not cease.

It had nothing to do with "fallen angels" mixing it up with the daughters of men. Why?

Matthew 19:
4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.


God joins the man and the woman in holy matrimony. God is not going to join a man to a man or a woman to a woman or a man to a beast or a woman to a beast.

So God is definitely NOT going to join a fallen angel or even an angel to a woman.

Matthew 22:30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.

The sons of God are Israel roots in the Bible as in referencing the family tree back to Seth and then to Adam as the sons of God.

Luke 3:38 Which was the son of Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the son of God.

Who are the sons of God now? It is not by blood nor the will of man any more.

John 1:
12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:
13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

The sons of God were never angels in the Bible, let alone, fallen angels. How can fallen angels still be referenced as the sons of God? They can't be. Therefore, they never were.

 

[vooks]

Why did God flooded the world?
He said it twice; before the flood and after the flood as to why He did it.
He said this in bold before the flood.

Genesis 6:5 And God saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually.

Ever heard of selective amnesia? You saw the latter part of verse 5 and forgot about the former, the one I have highlighted in color.
The question is, what wickedness?

Your other perennial sickness @Hark is false dilemmas; you are basically saying that if the then world was destroyed because of the fallen angels sleeping with men, it can't have been destroyed because of the wickedness of man both in thoughts and action. But this is fatally defective logic, for IF indeed sleeping with angels was regarded as wickedness by God, then your argument is still born for God destroying the earth for wickedness and imagination and destroying it at least in part for men sleeping with angels are one and the same thing

There was wickedness AND every imagination of men's hears were only evil.

There are various views as to who the sons of God in Genesis were, and you have not said anything new but rather stuck to Sethites theory.

Let's examine it;

 

[vooks]

The Sethites theory

The sons of God are Israel roots in the Bible as in referencing the family tree back to Seth and then to Adam as the sons of God.

1. Give us scriptural proof that sons of God are descendants of Seth
2. Give us scriptural proof that daughters of men are anything than all women
3. Give us scriptural proof that Seth and his descendants were more pious than the rest
4. Explain why of all descendants of Seth, only Noah's family was saved

 

[vooks]

The sons of God were never angels in the Bible, let alone, fallen angels. How can fallen angels still be referenced as the sons of God? They can't be. Therefore, they never were.

Job 1:6-7 (KJV)
Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the Lord, and Satan came also among them. 7 And the Lord said unto Satan, Whence comest thou? Then Satan answered the Lord, and said, From going to and fro in the earth, and from walking up and down in it.

Please explain who are these sons of God who came to present themselves before the Lord..

Job 38:1-7 (KJV)
Then the Lord answered Job out of the whirlwind, and said,
2 Who is this that darkeneth counsel
by words without knowledge?
3 Gird up now thy loins like a man;
for I will demand of thee, and answer thou me.
4 Where wast thou when I laid the foundations of the earth?
declare, if thou hast understanding.
5 Who hath laid the measures thereof, if thou knowest?
or who hath stretched the line upon it?
6 Whereupon are the foundations thereof fastened?
or who laid the corner stone thereof;
7 When the morning stars sang together,
and all the sons of God shouted for joy?

And who were these sons who shouted for joy during creation?

Daniel 3:25 (KJV)
He answered and said, Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God.

And who did Nebchadnezzer see in the fire? Remember he has already acknowledged there are four men walking in the fire

Before you resort to another meaningless proof texting babble, recall the term sons of God has also been used of men in the scriptures, but the point is you are obviously wrong for claiming the phrase has never been used of angels.

 

[vooks]

nothing to do with "fallen angels" mixing it up with the daughters of men. Why?

Matthew 19:
6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

This verse simply means God is the author or inventor of marriage, and it has nothing to support your claim

God joins the man and the woman in holy matrimony. God is not going to join a man to a man or a woman to a woman or a man to a beast or a woman to a beast.

Wake up bro, there is matrimony in question there and not procreation, for tell me if God joins man to a woman only upon conception? What about the childless? Are they joined?

So God is definitely NOT going to join a fallen angel or even an angel to a woman

Matthew 22:30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.

Matthew 22:30 does not tell us that angels can't procreate, just that they never marry.

Angels are spirits,but they have materialized as men and even eaten with Abraham for instance. Do we have any scriptural proof that they can't procreate? I would say Genesis 6 is the best example that they can

 

[Hark]

Ever heard of selective amnesia? You saw the latter part of verse 5 and forgot about the former, the one I have highlighted in color.
The question is, what wickedness?

Genesis 8:21 is the reason why that portion of Genesis 6:5 was singled out as the reason why God flooded the earth.

naturally, as a man thinks wickedness, he will do wickedness, but Genesis 8:21 has God testifying simply why He had flooded the earth.

Your other perennial sickness @Hark is false dilemmas; you are basically saying that if the then world was destroyed because of the fallen angels sleeping with men, it can't have been destroyed because of the wickedness of man both in thoughts and action. But this is fatally defective logic, for IF indeed sleeping with angels was regarded as wickedness by God, then your argument is still born for God destroying the earth for wickedness and imagination and destroying it at least in part for men sleeping with angels are one and the same thing

There was wickedness AND every imagination of men's hears were only evil.

There are various views as to who the sons of God in Genesis were, and you have not said anything new but rather stuck to Sethites theory.

Let's examine it;

Again, God said why He flooded the world in Genesis 8:21 and it wasn't because of some diabolical plot by the devil to prevent the Christ child from coming by polluting the bloodline.

God would not join fallen angels with women as one flesh for the women to be called wives to them in His words.

 

[Hark]

The Sethites theory

1. Give us scriptural proof that sons of God are descendants of Seth

The sons of God are Israel roots in the Bible as in referencing the family tree back to Seth and then to Adam as the sons of God.

Luke 3:38 Which was the son of Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the son of God.

Who are the sons of God now? It is not by blood nor the will of man any more.

John 1:12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:
13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

2. Give us scriptural proof that daughters of men are anything than all women

God would not call them "wives" in His words when joining them in holy matrimony.

Genesis 6:1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, 2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.

3. Give us scriptural proof that Seth and his descendants were more pious than the rest

Seth was born to replace Abel, the one that made a righteous offering to the Lord.

Genesis 4:25 And Adam knew his wife again; and she bare a son, and called his name Seth: For God, said she, hath appointed me another seed instead of Abel, whom Cain slew.

But as far as pious goes, look at how long they have lived in Genesis 5th chapter at this link of this lineage of Seth from Adam.

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis+5&version=KJV

And yet for marrying outside the line of Seth, their years were shortened.

Genesis 6:1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, 2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose. 3 And the Lord said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years.

Except Noah, of course.

4. Explain why of all descendants of Seth, only Noah's family was saved

Because all the descendents of Seth were the sons of God that stepped outside the lineage of Seth in marrying in other lineages of Adam's sons'.

Genesis 6:1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, 2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.

This was also a lesson for Israel not to marry outside of Isreal. Whether or not Goliath was a result of a mixed marriage can only be left to speculation due to this verse.

Genesis 6:4 There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.

Do note that the result of this mix breeding is that they are still men.

 

[Hark]

This verse simply means God is the author or inventor of marriage, and it has nothing to support your claim

Wake up bro, there is matrimony in question there and not procreation, for tell me if God joins man to a woman only upon conception? What about the childless? Are they joined?

The point here is that God said for sea life, air life, and the land animals in multiplying, it is to be after their kind.

Genesis 1:21 And God created great whales, and every living creature that moveth, which the waters brought forth abundantly, after their kind, and every winged fowl after his kind: and God saw that it was good. 22 And God blessed them, saying, Be fruitful, and multiply, and fill the waters in the seas, and let fowl multiply in the earth. 23 And the evening and the morning were the fifth day. 24 And God said, Let the earth bring forth the living creature after his kind, cattle, and creeping thing, and beast of the earth after his kind: and it was so. 25 And God made the beast of the earth after his kind, and cattle after their kind, and every thing that creepeth upon the earth after his kind: and God saw that it was good. 26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth. 27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them. 28 And God blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it: and have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over every living thing that moveth upon the earth.

So when God commanded Adam and Eve to multiply, the multiplying is only going to happen after their kind in according to His word that He has commanded in nature to abide by.

Psalm 127:3 Lo, children are an heritage of the Lord: and the fruit of the womb is his reward.

Psalm 139:13 For thou hast possessed my reins: thou hast covered me in my mother's womb. 14 I will praise thee; for I am fearfully and wonderfully made: marvellous are thy works; and that my soul knoweth right well. 15 My substance was not hid from thee, when I was made in secret, and curiously wrought in the lowest parts of the earth. 16 Thine eyes did see my substance, yet being unperfect; and in thy book all my members were written, which in continuance were fashioned, when as yet there was none of them. 17 How precious also are thy thoughts unto me, O God! how great is the sum of them!

Matthew 22:30 does not tell us that angels can't procreate, just that they never marry.

They can't be angels if they are fornicating which is a sin.

Angels are spirits,but they have materialized as men and even eaten with Abraham for instance. Do we have any scriptural proof that they can't procreate?

John 3:6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.

1 Corinthians 15:38 But God giveth it a body as it hath pleased him, and to every seed his own body. 39 All flesh is not the same flesh: but there is one kind of flesh of men, another flesh of beasts, another of fishes, and another of birds. 40 There are also celestial bodies, and bodies terrestrial: but the glory of the celestial is one, and the glory of the terrestrial is another....44 It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body.

The Hebrew word "ben" is where sons is translated from which means builder of a family name, therefore sons of God was always a reference to Israel's roots.

Terrestrial bodies will only give birth to terrestrial bodies.

I would say Genesis 6 is the best example that they can

It is a popular line of thinking, but it is unscriptural.

 

[Hark]

Job 1:6-7 (KJV)
Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the Lord, and Satan came also among them. 7 And the Lord said unto Satan, Whence comest thou? Then Satan answered the Lord, and said, From going to and fro in the earth, and from walking up and down in it.

Please explain who are these sons of God who came to present themselves before the Lord..

Ask yourself why God would single out Job to Satan while all this was going on with supposedly angels?

It is because like Abel that presented an acceptable offering to the Lord, these saints were presenting themselves to the Lord in how they had lived their lives which is why God pointed out Job to Satan and why Satan wanted to prove otherwise about Job's approval in God's eye.

Job 38:1-7 (KJV)
Then the Lord answered Job out of the whirlwind, and said,
2 Who is this that darkeneth counsel
by words without knowledge?
3 Gird up now thy loins like a man;
for I will demand of thee, and answer thou me.
4 Where wast thou when I laid the foundations of the earth?
declare, if thou hast understanding.
5 Who hath laid the measures thereof, if thou knowest?
or who hath stretched the line upon it?
6 Whereupon are the foundations thereof fastened?
or who laid the corner stone thereof;
7 When the morning stars sang together,
and all the sons of God shouted for joy?

And who were these sons who shouted for joy during creation?

That is a popular misreading of the scripture but God was reminding Job of how he and the sons of God were singing about His works in creation that Job ought to know better in questioning God earlier.

Daniel 3:25 (KJV)
He answered and said, Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God.

And who did Nebchadnezzer see in the fire? Remember he has already acknowledged there are four men walking in the fire

Before you resort to another meaningless proof texting babble, recall the term sons of God has also been used of men in the scriptures, but the point is you are obviously wrong for claiming the phrase has never been used of angels.

That was Jesus before His incarnation. He has made other appearances in the O.T. to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob also as the God that the men had seen.

 

[vooks]

Genesis 8:21 is the reason why that portion of Genesis 6:5 was singled out as the reason why God flooded the earth.

naturally, as a man thinks wickedness, he will do wickedness, but Genesis 8:21 has God testifying simply why He had flooded the earth.

We are in agreement that the world was destroyed because of wickedness, the question is whether sons of God marrying daughters of men was part of that wickedness and if it was,WHY it was wickedness

Again, God said why He flooded the world in Genesis 8:21 and it wasn't because of some diabolical plot by the devil to prevent the Christ child from coming by polluting the bloodline.

Who said it was?
That's a strawman argument...build strawmen, tear them apart, you win. Pretty silly

God would not join fallen angels with women as one flesh for the women to be called wives to them in His words.

True God does not join, and that's why it was a sin

 

[vooks]

The sons of God are Israel roots in the Bible as in referencing the family tree back to Seth and then to Adam as the sons of God.

Luke 3:38 Which was the son of Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the son of God.

The evidence of your claim is not your claim. You have already claimed sons of God are descendants of Seth. Now please give scriptural basis for your wild claims. This is your MO; repeat a claim ad nauseum without scriptural proof. This is not wisdom but foolishness as it is essentially a shouting match

Who are the sons of God now? It is not by blood nor the will of man any more.

John 1:12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:
13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

We are not discussing sons of God NOW but sons of God in Genesis 6

God would not call them "wives" in His words when joining them in holy matrimony.

Genesis 6:1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, 2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.

You are hypothesizing. They are called wives and they are wives. Period

Seth was born to replace Abel, the one that made a righteous offering to the Lord.

Genesis 4:25 And Adam knew his wife again; and she bare a son, and called his name Seth: For God, said she, hath appointed me another seed instead of Abel, whom Cain slew.

It was Abel who made an acceptable offering and it is a stretch of imagination to claim that his replacement was righteous and further the seed of the replacement were righteous

But as far as pious goes, look at how long they have lived in Genesis 5th chapter at this link of this lineage of Seth from Adam.

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis+5&version=KJV

So their piety is measured by length of life? This is another silly and baseless arguments from silence for pray tell me how long non-Sethites lived? Besides, go through the Kings of Israel and Judah and see if those who did right in the sight of God necessarily outlived the wicked. Start with Hezekiah

And yet for marrying outside the line of Seth, their years were shortened.
Genesis 6:1 .
Except Noah, of course.

Your claim is sons of God were Sethites, daughters of men were the rest. What I require of you is scriptural evidence of this claim, not repeating it
1. Prove that sons of God were Sethites
2. Prove that daughters of men were the rest

Because all the descendents of Seth were the sons of God that stepped outside the lineage of Seth in marrying in other lineages of Adam's sons'.

Genesis 6:1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, 2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.

Your usual modus operandi is to repeat a claim ad nauseum, but this is the height of ignorance, I'd have expected for somebody with a modicum reverence for scriptures to tell me, ' sons of God are descendants of Seth because scriptures in xxxxx tell us...', instead, all you are doing is repeating an empty claim. You are not interested in the truth, just I purveying your baseless lies

This was also a lesson for Israel not to marry outside of Isreal. Whether or not Goliath was a result of a mixed marriage can only be left to speculation due to this verse.
Genesis 6:4 There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.

But even the 'after that' is BEFORE Noah built the ark so your point is moot. In any case, if Noah was spared because he never intermarried, for there to have been giants after the flood would imply the mixed seed sneaked into the ark or the flood. Was not global

Do note that the result of this mix breeding is that they are still men.

Because whenever angels materialize, they are as men in every way. So what did you expect them to produce, elves?

 

[vooks]

Ask yourself why God would single out Job to Satan while all this was going on with supposedly angels?

I can't know the mind of God but one thing is certain, He did 'brag' about Job's faithfulness to Satan

It is because like Abel that presented an acceptable offering to the Lord, these saints were presenting themselves to the Lord in how they had lived their lives which is why God pointed out Job to Satan and why Satan wanted to prove otherwise about Job's approval in God's eye.

When and where do you find saints presenting themselves to the Lord how they had lived their lives?

That is a popular misreading of the scripture but God was reminding Job of how he and the sons of God were singing about His works in creation that Job ought to know better in questioning God earlier.

Your ignorance is nauseating.
The sons of God are not singing ABOUT creation but DURING creation
Job 38:1-9 (KJV)
Then the Lord answered Job out of the whirlwind, and said,
2 Who is this that darkeneth counsel
by words without knowledge?
3 Gird up now thy loins like a man;
for I will demand of thee, and answer thou me.
4 Where wast thou WHEN I laid the foundations of the earth?
declare, if thou hast understanding.
5 Who hath laid the measures thereof, if thou knowest?
or who hath stretched the line upon it?
6 Whereupon are the foundations thereof fastened?
or who laid the corner stone thereof;
7 WHEN the morning stars sang together,
and all the sons of God shouted for joy?
8 Or who shut up the sea with doors,
when it brake forth, as if it had issued out of the womb?
9 When I made the cloud the garment thereof,
and thick darkness a swaddlingband for it,

The question is 'where were you WHEN I laid the foundations of the earth, WHEN the morning stars sang together and sons of God sang for joy?'
Why would God ask Job where he was when he(Job) and others were singing? What is the point? Don't impute foolishness on God my friend.

That was Jesus before His incarnation. He has made other appearances in the O.T. to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob also as the God that the men had seen.

Another baseless claim. There is no scriptural proof that it was Jesus but the point is, the fourth man differs significantly from the three to warrant a pagan king to identify him as 'son of God/gods'. If son of God meant an Israelite or men and not angels, the king's observation are redundant. The only logical conclusion from the passage is, whatever the king meant by 'son of God/gods', it was not human. Furthermore, how could a pagan King identify Jesus?