WestminsterMan
New Member
In this thread:
http://www.baptistboard.com/showpost.php?p=1732474&postcount=14
the moderator said the thread with this title would stand if the OP pointed out the differences between "formal -vs- dynamic equivalency", so....
I ask some of you scripture scholars to educate the rest of us on these two methodologies and why (in your educated opinion) the KJV translators relied heavier on the literal side, than modern translations. An examination of how this causes problems with certain passages would be helpful.
Thanks,
WM
http://www.baptistboard.com/showpost.php?p=1732474&postcount=14
the moderator said the thread with this title would stand if the OP pointed out the differences between "formal -vs- dynamic equivalency", so....
I ask some of you scripture scholars to educate the rest of us on these two methodologies and why (in your educated opinion) the KJV translators relied heavier on the literal side, than modern translations. An examination of how this causes problems with certain passages would be helpful.
Thanks,
WM