Craigbythesea
Well-Known Member
Mr. Edwards,The English KJV is so good, you don't need to know Hebrew or Greek.
In which of the five versions of the King James Version under discussion do you find the English rendering of the tense of the verb depicting hunger in Matt. 4:2 to be so good? If the English rendering of the tense of the verb depicting hunger in Matt. 4:2 is so good, why is it that as of yet no one has been able to tell us correctly what English tense the publishers of the five versions of the King James Version are attempting to render here?
No, you do not need to know Hebrew or Greek, but you do need to know early 17th century English grammar. I am still looking for someone who does, and thus has the ability to read and fully comprehend this verse in the fourth chapter of Matthew in any of the five versions of the King James Version being discussed here.
And which of the five renderings of this verb in the five versions of the King James Version is the correct rendering of the verb?
One more question: Do any of you have yet another version of the King James Version rendering of Matt. 4:2 to add to the five versions of the King James Version being discussed in this thread?