If the very assertions or statements made by several KJV-only authors were applied consistently and justly, would they prove that there would be errors in the KJV?
KJV-only author Bob Kendall declared: “Every word and letter that proceeds out of the mouth of God is equally authoritative” (How Firm, p. 53). Bob Kendall claimed: “Whenever the Holy Spirit speaks, every word is just as important as the next word” (p. 56). David Cloud asserted: “The translator is to faithfully transmit the words and message from the original into the receptor language as literally as possible” (Dynamic, p. 47). David Cloud declared: “The omission even of single words is frequently a significant doctrinal issue” (Answering, p. 21; Faith, p. 368; Why We Hold, p. 302). Steve Comb wrote: “Every verse and word in the Bible is significant doctrinally” (So Shall My Word, p. 42). David W. Norris asserted: “Bearing in mind that every single word carries with it the authority of the whole book and were one word missing the Bible would be incomplete and imperfect, we ought not to be surprised that subtracting of even a single word put in place by God or adding a word of our own incurs a penalty of eternal loss” (The Big Picture, pp. 260-261). David Daniels asserted: “First and foremost, we want every word that God said” (51 Reasons, p. 38).
Emanuel Rodriguez declared: “In order for a Bible to be correct it must have every word of God accurately translated in the receptor language” (God’s Bible, p. 15). Charles Kriessman claimed: “Dynamic Equivalence is employed when words in the text are either added, subtracted, or changed in some way” (Modern Version, p. 78). In his criteria for translating, H. D. Williams wrote: “Under no circumstance should words be added, subtracted, or changed in other ways” (Word-for-Word Translating, p. 230). M. H. Tabb asserted: “All Bible Correctors subtract from the words of God” (Inspiration, p. 208). KJV-only author Ken Matto asked: “How can anyone build their faith on what is omitted in the Bible?” (Modern Version, p. 190), but would he apply his own question to the places where the KJV omits words? Is nothing taken away or subtracted from the original-language texts in any of the following KJV renderings? Gary Miller asserted that KJV translators “made sure to clearly translate each and every word” (Why the KJB, p. 18). Michael Hollner claimed: “The A.V. of God’s Word holds nothing back, nor does it omit any of God’s Words” (King James Only, p. 5). Charles Keesee asserted: “If God inspired a word to be written down and your Bible does not contain it, then your Bible has an error” (Subtle Apostasy, p. 31).
Does the KJV provide English words for all words in its underlying original-language texts of Scripture as some KJV-only authors suggested or asserted? How does the KJV keep intact or preserve by accurate translation those original-language words of Scripture for which it gives no English word/rendering? Does the KJV have each and every original-language word of Scripture accurately translated in English when it has no English rendering for many of them? Does subtracting from the words of God by not giving any English word for many of them make the KJV translators into “Bible correctors” according to a consistent application of some KJV-only assertions? Should there be any exceptions to God’s commands about not adding to Scripture and not taking away from it? Did KJV-only advocates believe their own assertions truly and consistently if they do not practice them and do not apply them to the KJV?
Here is just one example of many that could be given where the KJV does not contain any English rendering for an original-language word of Scripture.
1 Kings 17:16 [1611 margin—“Heb. by the hand of”]
by the hand of Elia [1540 Great Bible]
by the hand of Eliah [1560 Geneva Bible]
by the hand of Elias [1602 Bishops’ Bible]
by Elijah [1611 KJV]
KJV-only author Bob Kendall declared: “Every word and letter that proceeds out of the mouth of God is equally authoritative” (How Firm, p. 53). Bob Kendall claimed: “Whenever the Holy Spirit speaks, every word is just as important as the next word” (p. 56). David Cloud asserted: “The translator is to faithfully transmit the words and message from the original into the receptor language as literally as possible” (Dynamic, p. 47). David Cloud declared: “The omission even of single words is frequently a significant doctrinal issue” (Answering, p. 21; Faith, p. 368; Why We Hold, p. 302). Steve Comb wrote: “Every verse and word in the Bible is significant doctrinally” (So Shall My Word, p. 42). David W. Norris asserted: “Bearing in mind that every single word carries with it the authority of the whole book and were one word missing the Bible would be incomplete and imperfect, we ought not to be surprised that subtracting of even a single word put in place by God or adding a word of our own incurs a penalty of eternal loss” (The Big Picture, pp. 260-261). David Daniels asserted: “First and foremost, we want every word that God said” (51 Reasons, p. 38).
Emanuel Rodriguez declared: “In order for a Bible to be correct it must have every word of God accurately translated in the receptor language” (God’s Bible, p. 15). Charles Kriessman claimed: “Dynamic Equivalence is employed when words in the text are either added, subtracted, or changed in some way” (Modern Version, p. 78). In his criteria for translating, H. D. Williams wrote: “Under no circumstance should words be added, subtracted, or changed in other ways” (Word-for-Word Translating, p. 230). M. H. Tabb asserted: “All Bible Correctors subtract from the words of God” (Inspiration, p. 208). KJV-only author Ken Matto asked: “How can anyone build their faith on what is omitted in the Bible?” (Modern Version, p. 190), but would he apply his own question to the places where the KJV omits words? Is nothing taken away or subtracted from the original-language texts in any of the following KJV renderings? Gary Miller asserted that KJV translators “made sure to clearly translate each and every word” (Why the KJB, p. 18). Michael Hollner claimed: “The A.V. of God’s Word holds nothing back, nor does it omit any of God’s Words” (King James Only, p. 5). Charles Keesee asserted: “If God inspired a word to be written down and your Bible does not contain it, then your Bible has an error” (Subtle Apostasy, p. 31).
Does the KJV provide English words for all words in its underlying original-language texts of Scripture as some KJV-only authors suggested or asserted? How does the KJV keep intact or preserve by accurate translation those original-language words of Scripture for which it gives no English word/rendering? Does the KJV have each and every original-language word of Scripture accurately translated in English when it has no English rendering for many of them? Does subtracting from the words of God by not giving any English word for many of them make the KJV translators into “Bible correctors” according to a consistent application of some KJV-only assertions? Should there be any exceptions to God’s commands about not adding to Scripture and not taking away from it? Did KJV-only advocates believe their own assertions truly and consistently if they do not practice them and do not apply them to the KJV?
Here is just one example of many that could be given where the KJV does not contain any English rendering for an original-language word of Scripture.
1 Kings 17:16 [1611 margin—“Heb. by the hand of”]
by the hand of Elia [1540 Great Bible]
by the hand of Eliah [1560 Geneva Bible]
by the hand of Elias [1602 Bishops’ Bible]
by Elijah [1611 KJV]