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Rightly Understanding Mark 16 Will End All Doubts as to Its Authenticity

kyredneck

Well-Known Member
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The Holy Spirit is not applied to both?

No. 'That generation' literally became demon-possessed, went mad, and self-destructed.

Christ did this:

49 I came to cast fire upon the earth [the land]; and what do I desire, if it is already kindled?
50 But I have a baptism to be baptized with; and how am I straitened till it be accomplished!
51 Think ye that I am come to give peace in the earth? I tell you, Nay; but rather division [civil war]:
52 for there shall be from henceforth five in one house divided, three against two, and two against three.
53 They shall be divided, father against son, and son against father; mother against daughter, and daughter against her mother; mother in law against her daughter in law, and daughter in law against her mother in law. Lu 12

...but it was not the Spirit of Christ that was working within these sons of disobedience:

43But the unclean spirit, when he is gone out of the man, passeth through waterless places, seeking rest, and findeth it not.
44Then he saith, I will return into my house whence I came out; and when he is come, he findeth it empty, swept, and garnished.
45Then goeth he, and taketh with himself seven other spirits more evil than himself, and they enter in and dwell there: and the last state of that man becometh worse than the first. Even so shall it be also unto this evil generation. Mt 12

The Jewish historian Josephus gives eyewitness account in incredible detail of their miserable destruction and the madness that beset them in his War of the Jews.
 
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JD731

Well-Known Member
How did Jesus our Lord add authenticity to the whole 20 verses in Mark during the last week on earth before his crucifixion. To answer that question one must understand that one of the three offices of our Lord when he came into the world would be the perfect prophet. That he certainly was, and those prophecies he declared will come to pass, if they have not come to pass already. The other of his two offices are the perfect Priest, this is the one he is occupying now. Lastly, he will be the perfect King over the Jews and by extension over the whole world. That is yet future.



The following parable of the Lord is a prophecy to the nation Israel. It concerns itself with the end of the day as almost all the parables of Jesus during the last week and the few days leading up to his crucifixion do. this one concerns itself with a marriage supper. It is going to be very interesting how this story progresses in the same way that the historical record of Acts progresses. We have seen this scenario over and over as we have read through the NT. This parable is given, I think, on what we call Wednesday before Jesus was crucified on what we call Friday Jesus was speaking in the Temple, the place where God met with his OT people.



Now, pay attention to the progression;



46 But when they sought to lay hands on him, they feared the multitude, because they took him for a prophet.

1 ¶ And Jesus answered and spake unto them again by parables, and said,



2 The kingdom of heaven is like unto a certain king, which made a marriage for his son,

3 And sent forth his servants to call them that were bidden to the wedding: and they would not come.



We find out from other parables of Jesus that the ones bidden are collectively slated to also be the bride. These are those servants from Mark 16:15-16. They go to Jerusalem and Judah. These are ones who are bidden.



4 Again, he sent forth other servants, saying, Tell them which are bidden, Behold, I have prepared my dinner: my oxen and my fatlings are killed, and all things are ready: come unto the marriage.



We read at the end of 7 years and in Acts 7 that they are all gathered at the temple in Jerusalem where I believe the marriage would have taken place if those who were bidden would have come as bidden. There would be a probation of 40 years as asked by the keeper of the vineyard, another parable from Luke. Intercession! Isn't that what a priest does?



We can read Acts 8 when Phillip took the gospel to the Samaritans, the strangers of Israel, the outcasts. This was in the year 37/38 AD.





5 But they made light of it, and went their ways, one to his farm, another to his merchandise:

6 And the remnant took his servants, and entreated them spitefully, and slew them.



Remember, they killed James, an apostle of the Lord in Jerusalem and persecuted the church.



7 But when the king heard thereof, he was wroth: and he sent forth his armies, and destroyed those murderers, and burned up their city.

8 Then saith he to his servants, The wedding is ready, but they which were bidden were not worthy.



Historically this took place in 70 AD when the Romans dispersed the Jews from the land and they lost their national identity. We can determine from this that the intention of the king was to begin his wedding feast in 70 AD, which is the culmination of the generation of Jesus Christ. Moses in Psalm 90:10 says a generation is 70 years.



_____________ <iiiiiiiii> ___________ Enter a transition here.



The marriage then is delayed and a whole new group, not previously bidden are invited to come. Because now it was not a preselected group that could come but rather anyone on the highways that got the invitation. It seems the only requirement is they be properly attired with a wedding garment, probably provided by the king.



9 Go ye therefore into the highways, and as many as ye shall find, bid to the marriage.

10 So those servants went out into the highways, and gathered together all as many as they found, both bad and good: and the wedding was furnished with guests.



We see the king opened the door to gentiles in Acts 10 for the first time in 40 AD. Romans 10 and 11 should be read as a supporting text for this study.



The time that has been spent on gathering guests to the wedding has been long and continues at this very day, but is almost over. The house is nearly full and that is what the king demands.

___________________

Ro 11:25 For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.

Lu 14:23 And the lord said unto the servant, Go out into the highways and hedges, and compel them to come in, that my house may be filled.



A house is a family.

________________



11 And when the king came in to see the guests, he saw there a man which had not on a wedding garment:

12 And he saith unto him, Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment? And he was speechless.

13 Then said the king to the servants, Bind him hand and foot, and take him away, and cast him into outer darkness; there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.

14 For many are called, but few are chosen.



There is a judgement of the guests before the marriage and entrance is solely determined by the attire. (one must be clothed with righteousness)



This passage is in the context of the "kingdom of heaven." This is the historical time between the resurrection and "day of the Lord." The marriage feast is the inauguration of the kingdom of Christ the King over all the earth. This is the church, the bride. We have a visual of this in the story of Adam and Eve and how they were in perfect fellowship with the Father in Eden, as man and wife. A land above the earth.



There are other parables that add details that Jesus gave during this time frame.
 

JD731

Well-Known Member
Every word of the KJV is real but it is not real just because someone has made a convincing argument for it.

One reason the KJV is real is because it is the only Bible on earth today that anyone believes is the word of God. These guys, some of whom seem to come across at times as being educated above their intelligence, do not believe any English Bibles they are presented with, and say so daily, and they are not sure which of the four families of manuscripts are true. They are not convinced by any words from God because they do not accept any for sure.

There has been an on going argument about the twenty verses of Mark 16, whether they are inspired and I took note of who these guys believe and it is the critics over Mark. That is who they quote. Textual criticism trumps the Scriptures. No one has made their case from the scriptures yet the scriptures will judge them and the critics one day.

There is a subtle attack on the word of God, I think, but it is intense.

Eccl 12:8 ¶ Vanity of vanities, saith the preacher; all is vanity.
9 And moreover, because the preacher was wise, he still taught the people knowledge; yea, he gave good heed, and sought out, and set in order many proverbs.
10 The preacher sought to find out acceptable words: and that which was written was upright, even words of truth.
11 The words of the wise are as goads, and as nails fastened by the masters of assemblies, which are given from one shepherd.
12 And further, by these, my son, be admonished: of making many books there is no end; and much study is a weariness of the flesh.
 
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KJB1611reader

Active Member
Every word of the KJV is real but it is not real just because someone has made a convincing argument for it.

One reason the KJV is real is because it is the only Bible on earth today that anyone believes is the word of God. These guys, some of whom seem to come across at times as being educated above their intelligence, do not believe any English Bibles they are presented with, and say so daily, and they are not sure which of the four families of manuscripts are true. They are not convinced by any words from God because they do not accept any for sure.

There has been an on going argument about the twenty verses of Mark 16, whether they are inspired and I took note of who these guys believe and it is the critics over Mark. That is who they quote. Textual criticism trumps the Scriptures. No one has made their case from the scriptures yet the scriptures will judge them and the critics one day.

There is a subtle attack on the word of God, I think, but it is intense.

Eccl 12:8 ¶ Vanity of vanities, saith the preacher; all is vanity.
9 And moreover, because the preacher was wise, he still taught the people knowledge; yea, he gave good heed, and sought out, and set in order many proverbs.
10 The preacher sought to find out acceptable words: and that which was written was upright, even words of truth.
11 The words of the wise are as goads, and as nails fastened by the masters of assemblies, which are given from one shepherd.
12 And further, by these, my son, be admonished: of making many books there is no end; and much study is a weariness of the flesh.
Amen.

Also, there is 666 verses in Mark if that portion is gone.

The Bible is right and if really want to research, will just end up with: its true.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
One reason the KJV is real is because it is the only Bible on earth today that anyone believes is the word of God.
The 1611 KJV is not the only Bible on earth today that anyone believes is the word of God.

The 1611 KJV is the word of God translated into English in the same sense (univocally) as the pre-1611 English Bibles are the word of God translated into English. The word of God had been translated into English many years before 1611.

Most KJV editions in print today have over 2,000 changes, revisions, and corrections when compared to the original 1611 edition of the KJV. According to a consistent application of the assertions made by several KJV-only authors, today's KJV editions would be a different Bible than the 1611 edition.

Believing a modern, non-scriptural theory concerning the KJV does not make the word of God bound to the textual criticism decisions, Bible revision decisions, and translation decisions of one exclusive group of Church of England critics in 1611.
 

JD731

Well-Known Member
JD731 said:
One reason the KJV is real is because it is the only Bible on earth today that anyone believes is the word of God.
The 1611 KJV is not the only Bible on earth today that anyone believes is the word of God.

The 1611 KJV is the word of God translated into English in the same sense (univocally) as the pre-1611 English Bibles are the word of God translated into English. The word of God had been translated into English many years before 1611.

Most KJV editions in print today have over 2,000 changes, revisions, and corrections when compared to the original 1611 edition of the KJV. According to a consistent application of the assertions made by several KJV-only authors, today's KJV editions would be a different Bible than the 1611 edition.

Believing a modern, non-scriptural theory concerning the KJV does not make the word of God bound to the textual criticism decisions, Bible revision decisions, and translation decisions of one exclusive group of Church of England critics in 1611.

What Bible do you believe is the word of God.
 
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Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
JD731 said:


What Bible do you believe is the word of God.
If you read my post, your question was already answered. There are several English Bibles that are the word of God translated into English.

The 1611 KJV is the word of God translated into English in the same sense (univocally) as the pre-1611 English Bibles are the word of God translated into English.
 

JD731

Well-Known Member
If you read my post, your question was already answered. There are several English Bibles that are the word of God translated into English.

The 1611 KJV is the word of God translated into English in the same sense (univocally) as the pre-1611 English Bibles are the word of God translated into English.
That is not an answer. You know what is not the Bible you say. What Bible do you believe is the word of God?
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
That is not an answer. You know what is not the Bible you say.
Your opinion is wrong since you were given a clear answer. My statement clearly stated what is the Bible translated into English.

The 1611 KJV is the word of God translated into English in the same sense (univocally) as the pre-1611 English Bibles are the word of God translated into English.
 

JD731

Well-Known Member
Your opinion is wrong since you were given a clear answer. My statement clearly stated what is the Bible translated into English.

The 1611 KJV is the word of God translated into English in the same sense (univocally) as the pre-1611 English Bibles are the word of God translated into English.
You answered a question I did not ask. What is your source to correct the errors? You must have one otherwise you would not know they are errors.

I am worshipping a God who demands I be perfect to be reconciled to him through a new birth. Like things beget like things.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You answered a question I did not ask.
Your question was "What Bible do you believe is the word of God", and my answer answered your question.

The 1611 KJV is the word of God translated into English in the same sense (univocally) as the pre-1611 English Bibles are the word of God translated into English.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
What is your source to correct the errors?
The same original-language sources of Scripture that were used in the making of the pre-1611 English Bibles and the 1611 KJV and that were used to correct errors and make many revisions and changes to the 1611 edition of the KJV still remain the greater authority for making changes and corrections to imperfections in present KJV editions. Over 2,000 changes, revisions, or corrections were made to the 1611 edition.

Writing for all the KJV translators in the 1611 preface, Miles Smith noted: “If anything be halting, or superfluous, or not so agreeable to the original, the same may be corrected, and the truth set in place.” Miles Smith observed: “No cause therefore why the word translated should be denied to be the word, or forbidden to be current, notwithstanding that some imperfections and blemishes may be noted in the setting forth of it. For whatever was perfect under the sun, where apostles or apostolike men, that is, men indued with an extraordinary measure of God’s Spirit, and privileged with the privilege of infallibility, had not their hand? The Romanists therefore in refusing to hear, and daring to burn the word translated, did no less then despite the Spirit of grace, from whom originally it proceeded, and whose sense and meaning, as well as man’s weakness would enable, it did express.”
 

JD731

Well-Known Member
1Pe 1:23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.

Ro 10:17 So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.

These words are from the KJV. Someone spoke these words and someone else wrote them with paper and ink, otherwise I would not know them.

Since believing his words is all God requires for the new birth, I am going to believe he provided them and preserved them and since knowing his mind and his ways are dependent upon his own revelation and testimony of himself through words I am going to believe he gave them.

Since you are stating that you don't believe that then I am putting you in the category of unbeliever as it relates to a perfect source until you tell me what it is.
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
Hello,

I would like to note that we KJBOs do not put the kings men as infaillable.

We take the text as infiallable.

Shawn
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
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Since you are stating that you don't believe that then I am putting you in the category of unbeliever as it relates to a perfect source until you tell me what it is.
In other words, you are in effect claiming that the KJV is not based on perfect sources since you refuse to accept its own underlying original-language texts of Scripture as a greater authority than the human translation decisions of one exclusive group of Church of England scholars in 1611 even though those texts were used to make 2,000 changes and corrections to the 1611 edition.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
We take the text as infiallable.
What text are you claiming to be infallible? The imperfect text of the 1611 edition or the later corrected and revised KJV text in the claimed PCE?

Fallible men made the over 2,000 changes, revisions, and corrections to the 1611 edition of the KJV.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I would like to note that we KJBOs do not put the kings men as infaillable.
Perhaps the arrogance of KJV-only advocates suggests that they may assume their own non-scriptural KJV-only opinions and unproven premises that defend on fallacies to be infallible. KJV-only advocates will reject scriptural truths as translated in the KJV when a consistent application of those scriptural truths conflicts with their human opinions concerning the KJV.

You present no positive, clear, consistent, coherent, sound, true, and scriptural case for a modern KJV-only theory.
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
Perhaps the arrogance of KJV-only advocates suggests that they may assume their own non-scriptural KJV-only opinions and unproven premises that defend on fallacies to be infallible. KJV-only advocates will reject scriptural truths as translated in the KJV when a consistent application of those scriptural truths conflicts with their human opinions concerning the KJV.

You present no positive, clear, consistent, coherent, sound, true, and scriptural case for a modern KJV-only theory.
I will not talk anymore on this as its causing discord.
 
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