So Much Misunderstanding, So Little Time
Often I have noticed MV's defenders claim that the Oldest Mss, text, codex are the Best.
Can you give an actual citation of this?
I'm not aware of any reputable text critic who said 'oldest is best.' The general rule of thumb is that the older a mss. is the MORE LIKELY it is to have less corruptions - but even that is hardly an ironclad rule.
Then why don't they omit Mark's Longer Ending ( Mark 16:9-20) and Pericope Adulturae ( John 7:53-8:11) ?
If they did, would that make you more or less likely to read that version?
1. Apparently the Oldest Codex Vaticanus B doesn't have Mark 16:9-20. Then why do MV's still keep them in the Bible even if they are in the bracket?
By inserting in the Bible what is not the Bible, they are violating the commandment of God.
When they debate about it, even if 617 mss has the Mark's Longer Ending, they vehemently defend B and Aleph which don't have the Longer Ending.
Then why don't the MV's clearly remove them from the Bible, so that they may be more faithful to their God and with their own belief?
For starters, your comparison is flawed. The reason virtually all NON-KJVO textual critics (with the obviouis exception of MT advocates like Robinson and Hodges-Farstad) reject these 12 verses as Marcan is because of a whole slew of evidence, not just the fact 'the two oldest omit it.' There are at least five different renderings of the ending of Mark - all explainable if the shorter ending is authentic and ONLY THE SHORT ONE explainable by the longer ending.
As far as why they didn't remove it, there is a difference between canonicity and original author. There is also the simple fact that folks who hold to the KJV tradition will get upset (as they do anyway).
2. As for John 7:53-8:11, why don't MV's eliminate the verses completely?
Why doesn't the KJV put it in Luke like some mss. do?
3. Why don't they follow the Oldest mss P66 in John 7:39 by omitting " Holy" there?
Because just because something is in an old mss. does not necessarily mean it is the most likely original. You do not even understand the position you are opposing, sir.
Why don't MV's keep their own principle, the Oldest the Best?
Because that is NOT a principle.
Textual criticism is one primary canon: the original reading is most likely the one that can explain the rise of all variant readings.
That's it.
Then there are two basic sub-canons. First, the shorter reading is to be preferred. Secondly, the more difficult reading is to be preferred.
If you think 'oldest is best' then you really need to acquaint yourself with the issue BEFORE spouting nonsense like this thread exhibits.
Are they afraid that the people may realize their omissions ( Deceptions!) and would not buy their Bibles?
Omitted compared to what? The KJV?
Are they afraid about their business so much when they remove Mark's Longer Ending and Adulterous Woman story?
Did it ever dawn on you that perhaps an ounce of humility indicates to some of them they MIGHT be wrong and those passages MIGHT be authentic - and thus they simply avert to the path of least resistance?
Why do they betray their own belief for the Business?
For Pete's sake, they put marginal notes in these places - and you're mad about those, too.
Why are they not bold enough to tell the people what they believe?
They do, they're called marginal notes.
Why do they "corrupt" their " holy" Bible by inserting what they believe are not the part of the genuine Bible?
Why did the KJV folks ADD to God's Word all those italics? I mean, we could go on forever, bud.
Can we or should we trust such people and such translations who do not behave as they believe?
Why is it virtually every KJVOist on the planet is a Baptist who uses a Bible translated by BABY SPRINKLERS?
Why do they betray their own belief? for the business? for their convenience?
Many other phrases or words which are controversial are omitted completely without bracket. Is it because such omissions cannot be detected by the common readers, but the big ones like the above mentioned ones are easy to find and therefore it is difficult for them to deceive the readers?
Is it a kind of Deception Technology?
But you can hardly say that anything compares. They do take out I John 5:7, for example, but the textual evidence is night vs. day.
At least there's the admission of 'Maybe our TC is wrong.'