I keep reading this false statement here on the BB...where did it originate from? A plain reading of SCripture CLEARLY shows different dispensations. You mean there were no believers until the 1850's who were able to see this?
This is not a false statement it is a bit of historical theology. I've read the Scriptures cover to cover, several times, and even with an eye towards theology. I just don't see it.
I was raised in a dispensationalist church and attended a dispensationalist school for college. After much prayer and study I have moved away from that position. Also, the argument gets confounded when reading early church fathers and every major theologian from the first century to the 19th century and you don't see the structure, forms, or even a hinting at a dispensationalist theology.
But then again it is only a theological framework and not the least bit salvific. Unless you suggest that to be Christian one must be dispensational...and I don't know anyone who would attempt that position.