Harold Garvey
New Member
The KJV is correct and the NKJV is lacking.:tonofbricks:
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Which "old" Bibles are you referring to?My old Dutch and Spanish bibles render the phrase "... got down on his knees and began begging..."
Neither the KJV nor contemporary versions are incorrect. The question is one of what the words in the native language mean. In contemporary context, "pipto proskuneo" doesn't mean to bow down and worship. It means to fall before someone in humility, as one would a monarch or master.
The KJV renders it "... fell down, and worshipped ..." because the word "worship" in 17th century English meant simply "to honor" or "to venerate". In contemporary English, however, it means to "to give reverence to a deity". My old Dutch and Spanish bibles render the phrase "... got down on his knees and began begging...".
It's a simple matter of the English language having evolved over the last 400 years. To use this verse as a pretext for single-translation-onlyism is a fallacy.
probably because many things would become evident about the NKJV that would show it to be lacking.:sleeping_2:Mr. Johnv, it is still evident that the NKJV leaves out the word worship or does not translate it. The NKJV evidently uses a different Greek text here and that is the reason it is more akin to the NIV, NASB, and RSV than the KJV. This is clear from the study Harold posted. Since I don't have a copy of a NKJV with Strong's numbers this is almost impossible to prove. Maybe that is why they don't allow a publication of an electronic version of the NKJV with Strong's numbers. That is unless you know of one somewhere.
The KJV reads just fine here in this 21st century, why does theNeither lacks anything. The KJV reads correctly in early 17th English. The NKJV reads correctly in late 20th century English.
Mr. Johnv, it is still evident that the NKJV leaves out the word worship or does not translate it. The NKJV evidently uses a different Greek text here and that is the reason it is more akin to the NIV, NASB, and RSV than the KJV. This is clear from the study Harold posted. Since I don't have a copy of a NKJV with Strong's numbers this is almost impossible to prove. Maybe that is why they don't allow a publication of an electronic version of the NKJV with Strong's numbers. That is unless you know of one somewhere.
It doesn't "leave out" anything. It translates the phrase in accordance with the use of English of the late 20th century. The KJV translates the phrase in accordance with the use of English of the early 17th century.Mr. Johnv, it is still evident that the NKJV leaves out the word worship or does not translate it.
No, it doesn't. "Worship" in 17th century English meant simply "to honor" or "to venerate". In 20th century English, it means to "to give reverenceThe KJV reads just fine here in this 21st century
It doesn't "leave out" anything. It translates the phrase in accordance with the use of English of the late 20th century. The KJV translates the phrase in accordance with the use of English of the early 17th century.
No, it doesn't. "Worship" in 17th century English meant simply "to honor" or "to venerate". In 20th century English, it means to "to give reverence
to a deity".
Which "old" Bibles are you referring to?My old Dutch and Spanish bibles render the phrase "... got down on his knees and began begging..."
Really? So words don't acquire new meanings? So "faggot" only means a burning piece of wood? "Gay" is solely being happy? "Sham" is just a fancy covering for a pillow? And "run" has absolutely nothing to do with panyhose or computer programs?BayouParson said:Words are changeless unless one thinks they have to modernize the present spiritual climate.
Really? So words don't acquire new meanings? So "faggot" only means a burning piece of wood? "Gay" is solely being happy? "Sham" is just a fancy covering for a pillow? And "run" has absolutely nothing to do with panyhose or computer programs?
What was written 100, 200, or 400 years ago was frozen at the point of time it was written and does not continue to keep up with the changes of language. The words on the page don't change, but the usage of those words outside of that page does. This is the point being made.
Yep, I'd say so, but it doesn't have the term nor its equivelent either, that's "different" enough for me to avoid the NKJV:smilewinkgrin:At the risk of sounding like a broken record, the NKJV does not leave out "worship," it just translates it differently.
Only if you limit the definition as so many of you do.
It doesn't "leave out" anything. It translates the phrase in accordance with the use of English of the late 20th century. The KJV translates the phrase in accordance with the use of English of the early 17th century.
No, it doesn't. "Worship" in 17th century English meant simply "to honor" or "to venerate". In 20th century English, it means to "to give reverence
to a deity".
I'd be intewrested where you get the definition of a faggot to be a piece of wood? My faggots are made of metal and have feet to elevate the wood so it can get air underneath to allow it to burn effectively.Really? So words don't acquire new meanings? So "faggot" only means a burning piece of wood? "Gay" is solely being happy? "Sham" is just a fancy covering for a pillow? And "run" has absolutely nothing to do with panyhose or computer programs?
So you think the word of God has to keep up with the depravity of man?What was written 100, 200, or 400 years ago was frozen at the point of time it was written and does not continue to keep up with the changes of language. The words on the page don't change, but the usage of those words outside of that page does. This is the point being made.
Ut o, you just exposed something: MOCKERY! of the word of God is what so many new versions do!
Some of the word changes you mention are evil people trying to gain legitimacy of their evil practices. Run has always meant all the things you suggest, that has not changed. Word changes will always happen, but the original meaning is still intact. Society will always try to make words mean something different than the original meaning. The word of God does not change to meet the demands of people or society. People are to be changed to meet the demands of the scripture. Changing the words of scripture is a yeilding to the pressures of society to dumb down the Bible. Changing the words of the Bible does nothing to clarify the meaning, especially the matter we have been discussing. In fact removing the word "worship" does not clarify the meaning. No one has said anything about the reference of Matt. 27:29 where bowing the knee did not constitute worship but mockery.
It is YOU who limits the definition to 17th century English. You're saying it's wrong to translate a bible into 21st century English, but you have no scriptural basis for that.Only if you limit the definition as so many of you do.
Before you accuse others of mocking or not understanding English, you might want to make sure you're using it correctly yourself.... it doesn't have the term nor its equivelent either...
Single-translation-onlyism is by definition liberal-mindedness, so you would be the first to require reeducation to overcome your liberal-mindedness.I wonder if we can ever re-educate those overtaken by liberal-mindedness.
I hold to the etymology of words and you run amuck with any word brought under the control of it's slang which also walks hand-in-hand with the depravity of man.It is YOU who limits the definition to 17th century English. You're saying it's wrong to translate a bible into 21st century English, but you have no scriptural basis for that.
Nope. Liberalism is a progressive attribute of modern men, of which you cling to with your teeth clinched.Before you accuse others of mocking or not understanding English, you might want to make sure you're using it correctly yourself.
Single-translation-onlyism is by definition liberal-mindedness, so you would be the first to require reeducation to overcome your liberal-mindedness.