canadyjd
Well-Known Member
No, I Tim. 3:11 does not give instructions for a deacon's wife. The greek word translated "their wives", doesn't mean "their wives".Also, I Timothy 3:11 gives instructions on how a deacon's wife should live. If this office were open to both men and women, why would this verse say "wives" [as opposed to "their spouses" or something similar to that]?
The word "their" is not in the text. The word translated "wives" should be translated "women".
So, right in the middle of qualifications for deacons, Paul tells us what kind of women can serve as deacons. It doesn't make sense any other way.
I had a Greek prof. in Seminary who understood the word meant "women" and not "their wives". Although I admired him, I disagreed with his conclusion that the "women" mentioned in 3:11 was referring to the women on the widow's list that is mentioned later in the book. The context doesn't support that conclusion.
For me, this was a case where I discovered scripture taught something different from what I had been taught in church.
Instead of following the traditions of the church, I have changed my mind and now follow what scripture says.
peace to you