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luke 18:16

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Harold Garvey

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Who does the Kingdom of God belong to? Seems the NIV says it belongs to children, but isn't it God's? Of course the KJV TELLS us it is made up, or "such is", of children
 

sag38

Active Member
Harold it means the same thing. You are trying to make the NIV say something that isn't there in order to make an attack. Most folks of any reasonable intelligence would have no problem with the proper interpretation of this verse.
 

Harold Garvey

New Member
Seems the term "belongs" means something different Than what some admit. The KJV is attacked by those who can't comprehend the word "suffer" by saying it gives the indication of pain.
 

Baptist4life

Well-Known Member
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Harold it means the same thing. You are trying to make the NIV say something that isn't there in order to make an attack. Most folks of any reasonable intelligence would have no problem with the proper interpretation of this verse.


Cannot the same thing be said about the supposed "hard" verses in the KJV?
 

Harold Garvey

New Member
The NIV says the kingdom BELONGS to the children. The KJV states the kingdom is "made up of" where it says "such is", but some people think this is unreasonable.
 

Dr. Bob

Administrator
Administrator
Trolling again?

It is the same thing. One is older style wording; one is modern

"Of such" is translated as a genitive of possession and we'd say "belongs to" today (showing they possess it). Is does not mean "is comprised of" or "made up of" - totally different wording had God inspired that. God used the correct word.

Of couse, modern translations DO say "belongs to". You should read one to help you understand archaic wording of the AV . . .
 

Amy.G

New Member
Who does the Kingdom of God belong to? Seems the NIV says it belongs to children, but isn't it God's? Of course the KJV TELLS us it is made up, or "such is", of children

No it doesn't.

NIV - Luk 18:16 -
But Jesus called the children to him and said, “Let the little children come to me, and do not hinder them, for the kingdom of God belongs to such as these.


I do not like the NIV, but giving false information about it is just wrong. Things like this actually turn people away from the KJV because this is obviously an untruth and ruins your credibility.
 
Harold it means the same thing. You are trying to make the NIV say something that isn't there in order to make an attack. Most folks of any reasonable intelligence would have no problem with the proper interpretation of this verse.


Now who is applying a double standard? Harold didn't attack the NIV. He only noted a difference. Rather than accusing Harold of "attacking", "trolling" or "giving false information" you can choose to have a reasonable discussion.

I disagree. There does seem to be a difference between the versions.
 

sag38

Active Member
Forgive me but I make my accusation based on a well established and illustrious reputation. And yes, there is a difference but they mean the same thing. Dr. Bob pointed it out well.
 
Trolling again?

....

"Of such" is translated as a genitive of possession and we'd say "belongs to" today (showing they possess it). Is does not mean "is comprised of" or "made up of" - totally different wording had God inspired that. God used the correct word.

Of couse, modern translations DO say "belongs to". You should read one to help you understand archaic wording of the AV . . .


Are you saying that "of such" in the KJV = "belongs to" of the NIV?
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Seems the term "belongs" means something different Than what some admit. The KJV is attacked by those who can't comprehend the word "suffer" by saying it gives the indication of pain.

All the more reason for English readers not to be limited to just one 400-yr-old version.
 

Harold Garvey

New Member
Trolling again?

It is the same thing. One is older style wording; one is modern

"Of such" is translated as a genitive of possession and we'd say "belongs to" today (showing they possess it). Is does not mean "is comprised of" or "made up of" - totally different wording had God inspired that. God used the correct word.

Of couse, modern translations DO say "belongs to". You should read one to help you understand archaic wording of the AV . . .

Ok, my camaro is of such of Harold's but I know who it belongs to. Amazing how the scholars have to explain something so relatively simple and call it archaic. The kingdom belongs to God and is made up of believers. If you say I am wrong then lay aside the bent sword of babble and show me
 

Deacon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Who does the Kingdom of God belong to? Seems the NIV says it belongs to children, but isn't it God's? Of course the KJV TELLS us it is made up, or "such is", of children
Harold belongs to the human race.
Do you deny eather of these?
…for of such is humanity.
…for humanity belongs to such as these.

Harold belongs to the Baptist Board.
Do you deny eather of these?
...for of such is the Baptist Board.
…for the Baptist Board belongs to such as these.

Rob
 

Harold Garvey

New Member
Humanity doesn't "belong" to anyone, I am only a part of it. BB belongs to those who created it and owns the rights to the website, I am just another member and belong to it within those parameters. In no way does it belong to me or does it belong collectively, each having equal authority, to its members. The kingdom of God, I am a member and God is its owner, it all belongs to him and he allows us to have a part within it, not over it. The NIV is giving the impression of coequal ownership.
 

Deacon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I'm impressed Harold, you discovered exactly what the two different comparisons were about.

One can own the Baptist Board but one cannot own humanity.

In the same way, no one can own the kingdom of God.

The NIV (and many others) uses English as you have just expressed it.

Yes it can be misunderstood but only if you want to misunderstand it.

Rob
 

Baptist4life

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I'm impressed Harold, you discovered exactly what the two different comparisons were about.

One can own the Baptist Board but one cannot own humanity.

In the same way, no one can own the kingdom of God.

The NIV (and many others) uses English as you have just expressed it.

Yes it can be misunderstood but only if you want to misunderstand it
.

Rob

:laugh::laugh::laugh::laugh:


That's funny.
 

David Michael Harris

Active Member
Who does the Kingdom of God belong to? Seems the NIV says it belongs to children, but isn't it God's? Of course the KJV TELLS us it is made up, or "such is", of children

Jesus is stating the attitude and demeanor of those who will dwell there as against the worlds ungodly and very mistaken attitude. I would say.

Basic Christian teaching.

Becoming a Christian is a massive wake up call.
 
No it doesn't.

NIV - Luk 18:16 -
But Jesus called the children to him and said, “Let the little children come to me, and do not hinder them, for the kingdom of God belongs to such as these.


I do not like the NIV, but giving false information about it is just wrong. Things like this actually turn people away from the KJV because this is obviously an untruth and ruins your credibility.

Well stated Amy!
 

Harold Garvey

New Member
I'm impressed Harold, you discovered exactly what the two different comparisons were about.

One can own the Baptist Board but one cannot own humanity.

In the same way, no one can own the kingdom of God.

The NIV (and many others) uses English as you have just expressed it.

Yes it can be misunderstood but only if you want to misunderstand it.

Rob

I'LL stick with the Bible that doesn't allow anyone to misunderstand. THE KJV tells us the kingdom is made up of children, the NIV says it belongs to children
 

rsr

<b> 7,000 posts club</b>
Moderator
Just a few observations:

1. This rendering is certainly not new. Both John Gill and John Wesley agreed with it.

2. The first translation that I can readily find (though my research certainly is not exhaustive) with the modern rendering is the American Bible Union revision of the KJV in 1865. (That's the "Baptist" version, which substituted immersed for baptized.)

3. Your objection that "The NIV is giving the impression of coequal ownership" seems weak. I don't not suppose you are willing to throw out "Blessed are the poor in spirit: for theirs is the kingdom of heaven" and "Blessed are they which are persecuted for righteousness' sake: for theirs is the kingdom of heaven" on the same grounds or to excise passages such as "For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God. For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again to fear; but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father. The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God: And if children, then heirs; heirs of God, and joint-heirs with Christ; if so be that we suffer with him, that we may be also glorified together."
 
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