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Salvation of OT Saints

percho

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
A question for Freewillers: Did GOD choose certain people to Salvation in the Old Testament?

All I know is, He hated Esau and loved Jacob. Also of all the people of the earth the only ones he knew (intimately) were the family he brought out of Egypt.

By the way is to die in faith a lot like or the same as dying in Jesus?
 

Deacon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I have some thoughts that I have been working through in an awesome debate/discussion that I am having with a close brother in Christ. The question how were saints like Abraham and David saved to be with God for eternity?
They were saved the same way we are, through faith!

For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness.” Now to the one who works, his wages are not counted as a gift but as his due. And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness,
Romans 4:3–5 ESV

Rob
 

olegig

New Member
I have some thoughts that I have been working through in an awesome debate/discussion that I am having with a close brother in Christ. The question how were saints like Abraham and David saved to be with God for eternity?

As you post answers I will have more thoughts to share but for now I will leave you all with this question. Thanks:thumbs:

IMO they were saved just as all men/women are saved, by doing exactly what God told them to do.
 

olegig

New Member
So what about the Gentiles God purposefully didn't speak to?

When someone asks about the OT gentiles salvation, or salvation of those in the deepest jungles, my first reaction is to say you better worry about what God told you and not be concerned about the other things of God.
But, I will not say that here. :smilewinkgrin:

I don't know that He "purposefully" did not speak to them. All I know is that He "purposefully" did not tell us about it.
However He did tell us of Jonah and the gentiles.

Paul addresses the gentiles in Rom 2:14ff.

Also I feel one can find peace in this respect from John 21:25.
 

Shortandy

New Member
It appears that everyone is in agreement that the OT saints were saved through faith in the One who was to come.

Here is why I asked. In a conversation I had a few weeks ago with a few guys concerning John 3:16 and "world" a fellow said something to this effect.

"World" can't mean everyone who ever has been or will be born. We agree that faith in the coming Christ was the bases of the OT saints salvation but what about the OT wicked and depraved? Did Jesus die for them that had already died in their sins? Naturally you all know what this debate centered upon...Reformed doctrine.

So what is your response to that guy? It seems logical to me but yall are more scholarly that I am. Looking forward to hearing from you. :thumbs:
 

olegig

New Member
It appears that everyone is in agreement that the OT saints were saved through faith in the One who was to come.
If you have gotten this impression of my position from what I have said, then I have done a poor job of expressing my position.

IMO the OT saints were saved through faith in what God had told them at the time. God does not expect anyone to believe in something that as yet was not revealed.
I just cannot believe the OT saint "believed in" or placed "faith in" the One who was to come when even the disciples did not understand when Jesus spoke of His death, burial, and resurrection. (Mk 9:10, 31-32; Jn 12:16)

The OT saint had been promised a land and a King, and told to do the works of the law.
Many times doing the works of the law is confused with "not sinning",,,,certainly they were not sinless; but the Bible does indicate they kept the law.
They had to do the works of the law....
What does one suppose would have happened to them had they not done all things as set forth in Lev?

I would term OT salvation as:
They were saved by Grace through faith and kept by works for it was their personal faith and it was shown by their works.
On the other hand the Christian today is saved by Grace through the gift of faith and this faith is the Faith of Christ, not our own.

Here is why I asked. In a conversation I had a few weeks ago with a few guys concerning John 3:16 and "world" a fellow said something to this effect.

"World" can't mean everyone who ever has been or will be born. We agree that faith in the coming Christ was the bases of the OT saints salvation but what about the OT wicked and depraved? Did Jesus die for them that had already died in their sins? Naturally you all know what this debate centered upon...Reformed doctrine.
I suggest you do a word study on the word "world" and see how the Bible uses the word.
IMO the Bible uses it in context of meaning everything God created upon the earth which was without form and void.
Therefore the "world" would consist of all mankind, animal life, plant life, mountains, rivers, oceans, etc.

So what is your response to that guy? It seems logical to me but yall are more scholarly that I am. Looking forward to hearing from you. :thumbs:
Being scholarly is one thing I very much hope I am never accused of being.:smilewinkgrin:
 
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