HP: Here is the quote I was asking about. Does moral law become civil law when penalties are attached? Why does not this comment suggest that moral law acording to you has no penalties, and only civil law does? Is that not precisely the point of your comment? If not, can you interpret your comment for us?
My point is this.
God's moral law is stated in the Ten Commandments
without penalty
They are immutable truths, or laws that are written in the hearts of every man, according to Romans 2:14,15. It is generally what is referred to as God's moral law.
When man takes that law and begins to expand upon it, it does not take away any of its morality. Morals deal with right and wrong. But man adds penalties according to his societal mores. The Hebrews (directed by laws given straight from God through Moses) were told that for stealing they had to restore four times the amount taken.
That is not the penalty for stealing in our nation. Our laws are different.
They vary according to the theft or crime. Theft may require: recompense, community service, jail time, or some other judgment that a judge may impose. It is not as set in stone as the Hebrew law was. But that is civil law. The law, dealing with right and wrong, is still moral, but now it is civil as well.
Laws such as: Love your neighbor as yourself is moral and is always apodictic. There is never a penalty attached to it. There is no civil law about not loving your neighbor as yourself, and if you don't the police are not going to punish you for it. It cannot become a casuistic law. But it still is moral. Why? Because it is always right to love your neighbor. It still deals with right and wrong.