Who does the verse speak to?

[Dr. Walter]

Dr. Walter has brought up a great example of what my OP is reffering to on another thread. In his discussion of the Holy Spirit he states that the Baptism of the Spirit is a specific event that occured four distinct times while being filled indwelt by the spirit is applicable to all of us for all time. For the record I will state that I agree, at least on the surface. My question does not pertain to wether or not his view is correct, but rather how do we arrive at it.

John the baptist stated that one is comomh who would baptise with the Holy Ghost and fire. I beleive Jesus also make similar statements. Jesus also promised the indwelling of the spirit. Now, following the basic bible study tips that have been given hear we determine who was the audiance. In both cases it was the disciples of Jesus and some others who heard the statement. Yet we say that one case applied to them and not us, yet the other case applies to both.

Please excuse my bad spelling and grammar, I am in a rush and my appalachian comes out.

Actually both John and Jesus limited the promise to baptized beleivers in Christ whom John made ready to be prepared for the Lord to assemble around him (Mt. 3:11; Lk. 1:17; Acts 1:5; 21-22).

The plural "you" who were to be baptized in the Spirit were the same plural "you" who submitted to the baptism of John (Mt. 3:11). Jesus further limited it to the plural "you" (Acts 1:5) who had accompanied with him from "the baptism of John" until his resurrection (Acts 1:21-22) who kept assembling in Acts 1:15-22 and the same plural "you" which assembled in Acts 2:1 which received the baptism in the Spirit. So there were not two different audiances being addressed. The same pronoun "you" who John baptized was the same pronoun "you" he promised that Jesus would baptize in the Spirit. Furthermore, this promise inferred that just as they submitted to John to be baptized in water they would also have to submit to Jesus as the administrator of Spirit baptism (Matt. 3:11 with Acts 1:5) which they did (Acts 1:5 with 2:1).

 

[thegospelgeek]

Actually both John and Jesus limited the promise to baptized beleivers in Christ whom John made ready to be prepared for the Lord to assemble around him (Mt. 3:11; Lk. 1:17; Acts 1:5; 21-22).

The plural "you" who were to be baptized in the Spirit were the same plural "you" who submitted to the baptism of John (Mt. 3:11). Jesus further limited it to the plural "you" (Acts 1:5) who had accompanied with him from "the baptism of John" until his resurrection (Acts 1:21-22) who kept assembling in Acts 1:15-22 and the same plural "you" which assembled in Acts 2:1 which received the baptism in the Spirit. So there were not two different audiances being addressed. The same pronoun "you" who John baptized was the same pronoun "you" he promised that Jesus would baptize in the Spirit. Furthermore, this promise inferred that just as they submitted to John to be baptized in water they would also have to submit to Jesus as the administrator of Spirit baptism (Matt. 3:11 with Acts 1:5) which they did (Acts 1:5 with 2:1).

But in John 14 and 15 he makes reference to the same people as "you" and is speaking about the indwelling of the HS. What distinguishes the two?

 

[Dr. Walter]

But in John 14 and 15 he makes reference to the same people as "you" and is speaking about the indwelling of the HS. What distinguishes the two?

I don't believe that he is speaking of the INDIVIDUAL indwelling of the Spirit in John 14 and 15 but the INSTITUTIONAL indwelling of the plural "you" as the new house of God. When the shekinah glory immersed the former houses of God it was also the time God indwelt the new house "of God."

Individuals have always been indwelt by the Spirit of God and any individual who is not indwelt by the Spirit of God before or after Pentecost is "none of his" (Rom. 8:9).

In Romans 8:8-9 Paul gives only two kinds of people in the world. Those "in the flesh" and those "in the Spirit." Those in the flesh are incapable of loving God ("enmity with God") and are incapable of submitting to the will of God ("not subject to the law of God and neither indeed can be") - Rom. 8:7. You cannot be "in the Spirit" if you are not indwelt by the Spirit - Rom. 8:9.

Therefore, one must distinguish between INSTITUTIONAL indwelling and INDIVIDUAL indwelling. The individual is a house or temple of God (1 Cor. 6:19) but the corporate church body at Corinth is also a plural "you" but a singular "temple" of the Holy Spirit (1 Cor. 3:16)