Skandelon
<b>Moderator</b>
It's also basic to any orthodox theology, besides the Augustinian/Calvin Western version, that the sacrifice of atonement provides reconciliation for the whole world rather than a select few, but that doesn't stop you.This is really ludicrous. Basic to any orthodox theology is the understanding that we are condemned for sin.
You point out Hebrews 3:19: So we see that they were unable to enter because of unbelief.
The problem? The author of Hebrews is not referring to a universal situation. He is referring to an historical situation with Israel. In other words, he is not delivering a theological diagnosis, per se. Rather, he is delivering a historical. To make a universal point about unbelief is not his point.
Seriously? Please go back and read the entire chapter. Clearly he is warning them so as to prevent them from repeating the same mistakes of their ancestors so they could "enter their rest." For Israel of old that was the Promised Land, which you and I both know is representative of the eternal rest to come.
It says, "Beware, brethren, lest there be in any of you an evil heart of unbelief in departing from the living God; 13 but exhort one another daily, while it is called "Today," lest any of you be hardened through the deceitfulness of sin."
Does that sound like its only historical in nature to you? Or what about when he rights in the very next verse, "Therefore, since a promise remains of entering His rest, let us fear lest any of you seem to have come short of it. 2 For indeed the gospel was preached to us as well as to them; but the word which they heard did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in those who heard it. 3 For we who have believed do enter that rest, as He has said: "So I swore in My wrath, 'They shall not enter My rest,' " although the works were finished from the foundation of the world."
How can you possibly say that is not "theological" or applicable to our salvation? Now that is Ludicrous.
What?!? It tells us exactly why they are "condemned already." It says, "because he has not believed..." How much more clear could that be? You clearly don't wish to see the truth of this passage.You point out John 3:18: Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God.
The problem? You ignore that this is speaking of two separate standings. It is very telling that the passage does not say "will be condemned." Instead, it says the non-believer is already condemned, meaning there is an a priori condemnation that is based on sin.
So, do you believe that those who have done good did good according to the law or according to faith in Christ? And what do you suppose he means when he says, "done evil?" Is he talking about breaking the law or refusing to believe in Christ? Isn't the ONLY way to be GOOD through faith in Christ? So, wouldn't it reason the only way to be "evil" according to that standard of righteousness is through unbelief? Both groups sin, right? Both groups broke the law, right? So what exactly is the difference between the good ones and the evil ones Archangel? FAITH IN CHRIST.Furthermore, you are ignoring John 5:25-29 which clearly states: 27 And he has given him authority to execute judgment, because he is the Son of Man. 28 Do not marvel at this, for an hour is coming when all who are in the tombs will hear his voice 29 and come out, those who have done good to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil to the resurrection of judgment. Notice, unbelief here is not the basis of judgment, but sinful deeds are.
Got to run, i'll get to the rest later...
NE is RIGHTEOUS and on the other hand point out a man who was declared RIGHTEOUS?