Paul said "But what matters is keeping the Commandments of God" 1Cor 7:19 and this is the message of the Jerusalem council - as we see from their appeal to Lev 17:10 regarding the eating of meat with blood in it and regarding the 7th Commandment.
The commandments of God refer to marriage on a chapter on marriage. Even in that verse the first half of it disannuls the law by frankly saying
circumcision is nothing. He might as well have said: The law is nothing. It is nothing to be concerned about. You are not under it. Why do you twist Scripture Bob? And not quote the entire verse?
As for the command of Acts 15, it was the method of eating meat that was referred to--eating meat with blood. This is no way refers to the dietary laws of Leviticus. Just a few chapters earlier the Lord gave Peter a vision telling him that all meat was clean and nothing to be refused, including pork and other so-called unclean meat (meat that was previously unclean, was now called clean.)
This is verified in the pastoral epistles:
1 Timothy 4:4 For every creature of God is good, and nothing to be refused, if it be received with thanksgiving:
--Since the Bible says "Give thanks in all things," it would be a sin to refuse any kind of meat. Every creature is good; nothing to be refused--pork, rats, dog, etc. You have no excuse.
In other Scriptures it says: "Eat whatsoever is set before you asking no question for conscience sake." You have no excuse not to eat pork or other meat from any kind of animal. The Gentiles of Acts 15 were under no such law. The only thing they were forbidden of was the method of preparation--it could not be cooked with the blood still in it. For the most part we don't even practice that today.
The NT authors always "uphold scripture" as we see in 2Tim 3:16.
So do we. It is you that does not uphold this verse by not rightly dividing the word of truth as explained above.
Thus in Acts 15 the argument is made that Christians are hearing Moses preached every Sabbath in the Synagogues. Acts 15:21
This was to be a recognition of the Gentiles for the Jews practice and culture, not a command. There is no command given to the Gentiles here. Can you see one? I don't. The Sabbath is not commanded to be kept. Besides that your interpretation is badly flawed. Note:
Moses never preached in a Synagogue. Your interpretation is wrong. The only place that Moses preached was on the Mount, in the wilderness, and in the Tabernacle. There were no Synagogues in Moses' time. You have a flawed interpretation.
In Acts 3:22 (Moses) and Acts 3:24 (Samuel and all the prophets) the NT evangelists argued that the Gospel is proven and established "sola scriptura" on the basis of scripture.
Acts 3:22 For Moses truly said unto the fathers, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me; him shall ye hear in all things whatsoever he shall say unto you.
--The prophet is Jesus. This has nothing to do with the Sabbath or the Law. Your point is moot and irrelevant to the discussion at hand. Jesus disdained never required the Gentiles to keep the Sabbath.
In Acts 16 - Paul requires that Timothy be circumcised - also in harmony with the Acts 15 Jerusalem council.
How many times does this have to be explained to you before you accept it. This was after Acts 15, and had nothing to do with any decision made there. Timothy was already a Jew. He was circumcised so that he would be able to reach the Jews more effectively and that is all.
In Rom 3:31 - Paul says "do we then make void the Law of God - God forbid! IN fact we establish the Law of God" -- also in harmony with the Acts 15 council.
This has nothing to do with Acts 15.
Context:
Romans 3:29-31 Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also: Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith. Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.
--The law is established in that it is applied to all. Both Gentiles and Jews are able to come to Christ. This has nothing to do with the ceremonial law of the Jews--the law which the Judaizers wanted to impose.
And so also Paul's argument in Romans 6 that Christians are not to sin against God's Law - in complete harmony with the Acts 15 council.
That is not what Romans 6 says. And it has nothing to do with Acts 15.
But what we do not see - is Paul insisting that gentiles "become Jews".
Neither do we see that they keep the Sabbath, the law, or any other part of the OT law.
The Eph 2 statement by Paul makes it clear that the issue of circumcision - was in fact the issue of "becoming a full convert to Judaism" not merely to be a gentile "believer".
Hogwash!
"Circumcision is nothing."
Salvation is "not of works"
11 Therefore remember that formerly you, the Gentiles in the flesh, who are called "" Uncircumcision'' by the so-called "" Circumcision,'' which is performed in the flesh by human hands
12 remember that you were at that time separate from Christ, excluded from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world.
13 But now in Christ Jesus you who formerly were far off have been brought near by the blood of Christ.
These verses simply teach that Jewish believers and Gentile believers are one in Christ. Circumcision doesn't mean one whit. The law doesn't matter. They are one in Christ. They were separated from each other. But now Christ has brought them together by his blood.