You are trying to have it both ways.
He did not do the breaking and according to what you posted earlier God does not recognize the divorce. In God's eyes he is still married to her.
If in God's eyes they are still married, then why are they not married. Why are they divorced? Therein is the sin. Isn't that obvious. You can't have it both ways. Either they are married or they are not? Which one? If they are not married, they are divorced, and God does not permit that in the Word of God. What therefore God has joined together
let not man put asunder. Which part of that statement do you not understand.
So the only way you have decided that the vow is broken is by man's law. And you attempt to asign blame to one who did not want a divorce just because no spouse is perfect. That is just plain unbiblical.
No marriage is perfect. No spouse is perfect. But a vow is a vow, and not to be broken by either party. If either party breaks the vow then the vow has been broken by both by default. "Let no man (or woman) put asunder." The man is no longer blameless in his marriage before God. How can he stand before God as an example before his congregation and say that he has ruled his house well? He has not. His wife was not submissive, subject to his authority, and he did not have rule over his own household. The divorce caused a scandal in the community which disqualifies him as pastor.
This is why I asked...
Does the baptist honor God's law of until death do you part? If yes, then is he not still blameless if he has not married another?
Has his spouse died? If no, then he is not blameless. It is a scandalous situation and he is part of the problem. I have never known a marriage where only one person is at fault. Did he love his wife even as Christ loved the church?
Or does the baptist honor man's law of divorce decrees?
I don't know what you are speaking of.
Husbands love your wives even as Christ loved the church and gave himself for it.
Let the wife reverence the husband.
--Was this done? Why not?
Was there any vows broken? yes. Thus the disqualification.
Are you passing judgment according to God's "until death do you part" or are you passing judgment by "the state has declared you divorced"?
If a man is divorced he is not blameless any longer, a requirement of a bishop or pastor. That is what God's Word says, not me. It has nothing to do with the state. Read Matthew chapter 19.
He did not ask for a divorce nor desire a divorce. Yet you have the man judged guilty even though you previously said God has him still married to her.
It takes two to tangle. Have you ever heard of a one sided argument? I don't think so. That is why I am not buying your story. There was a reason for the "up and left" story. I haven't heard the other story yet.
You need to take a position of one or the other. God's word on the matter or man's word.
I take God's Word: Husbands love your wives even as Christ loved the church and gave himself for it. I guarantee if any man loved his wife that much the wife would never leave.
Of course there is no such thing as a perfect spouse. This is off the point. The focus is on the act of divorce itself, fault is irrelevant.
Divorce without a reason? That is what Jesus condemned the Pharisees for. He said: "But for the hardness of your hearts Moses allowed it,
but from the beginning it was not so.
So what was the fault (the reason)? "the hardness of her heart" like the Pharisees? Yes, fault has everything to do with it. That is why Jesus condemned the Pharisees. "From the beginning it was not so."
If you want to judge by this standard you propose for being declared "blameless" then you yourself are not blameless since I am sure you have not been a perfect spouse. Don't you see how mixing apples with oranges is showing yourself as disqualified?
The difference is: My wife has never even considered separation or divorce, and she won't. She is faithful through thick and thin even to the point of being a missionaries wife to some of the most horrid places on earth. I think that qualifies as "to death do us part."
Fault and imperfection has nothing to do with this. We are speaking about the very act of divorce itself.
God says there is no reason, no fault for divorce. You don't get married and wake up the next morning and say I have made a mistake. It is forever. It is until death do us part. There is no excuses for divorce. My mother died a year and a half ago--after being married 61 years. They never thought of being divorced. "Til death do us part." There is no "fault clause" in marriage. It is a vow before God and man that cannot be broken.
If it is as you say..."His wife (divorced or not) in God's eyes is his wife forever. God does not recognize divorce"...then he is not guilty of divorce and she is not guilty of divorce but rather she is committing adultery. And if he were to marry another he would be committing adultery and they both would be blamed. As it is, he is not in sin and she is. He is not to be blamed for his wifes sins.
What kind of kooky reasoning is that? It doesn't make sense.
First, he is responsible for his wife and his marriage to keep it together. If he doesn't the "fault" lies with him. He is the head of his house, even as Adam was the head of his family and was at fault for Eve eating of the fruit of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. To Adam the sin was imputed.
Second, God allowed divorce. It is not his perfect will. Man still sins when he divorces. There is not any one-party sin. Both parties sin.
Third, he is not responsible for his wife's sin; but he is responsible for his own sin in the divorce. No man is perfect. He is partly responsible in the break up of this marriage also. This fact cannot be denied. And that is what you are trying to do.
Fourth, you say he is not in sin. You ought to know better. All men are in sin. I have never seen a perfect husband. He was at fault; he played part of the role in that break-up somehow. You may not know how. But he did.
Did he love his wife as Christ loved the church and gave himself for it?