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"...go, and sin no more."
Could that adulterous woman (or anyone else for that matter) have completely obeyed Christ's command?
How can this command of Christ be reconciled with the teaching of I John 1:8 ff.?
So simple, yet so rightHe is telling her to turn from her adulterous lifestyle.
Thanks for the enlightenment of what passage really means.
Would, therefore, a more precise wording of that passage be something along the lines of: "...go, and sin like this no more"?