Well, there's the problem right there, you are listening to men.
If I listen to you, won't I have the same problem? :laugh:
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Well, there's the problem right there, you are listening to men.
You took Revelation scripture out of context.
You take the order of grace then faith out of proper order.
Which Bible Versions do you use?
Do you use commentaries (since you miss completely the Rev. 3:20-22 is plainly saying the statement is unto the churches)?
I am certain since you view others as arrogant, unteachable, proud, and arrogant, you will humbly answer, and teachable as you are, accept you have misinterpreted Revelation and the grace/faith order of things so clearly taught in Scriptures.
Behold, I stand at the door and knock, etc., v. 20. Here observe, [1.] Christ is graciously pleased by his word and Spirit to come to the door of the heart of sinners; he draws near to them in a way of mercy, ready to make them a kind visit. [2.] He finds this door shut against him; the heart of man is by nature shut up against Christ by ignorance, unbelief, sinful prejudices. [3.] When he finds the heart shut, he does not immediately withdraw, but he waits to be gracious, even till his head be filled with the dew. [4.] He uses all proper means to awaken sinners, and to cause them to open to him: he calls by his word, he knocks by the impulses of his Spirit upon their conscience. [5.] Those who open to him shall enjoy his presence, to their great comfort and advantage. He will sup with them; he will accept of what is good in them; he will eat his pleasant fruit; and he will bring the best part of the entertainment with him. If what he finds would make but a poor feast, what he brings will make up the deficiency: he will give fresh supplies of graces and comforts, and thereby stir up fresh actings of faith, and love, and delight; and in all this Christ and his repenting people will enjoy pleasant communion with each other. Alas! what do careless obstinate sinners lose by refusing to open the door of the heart to Christ!
If any man hear my voice - Perhaps referring to a custom then prevailing, that he who knocked spake, in order to let it be known who it was. This might be demanded in the night Luke 11:5, or when there was apprehension of danger, and it may have been the custom when John wrote. The language here, in accordance with the uniform usage in the Scriptures (compare Isaiah 55:1; John 7:37; Revelation 22:17), is universal, and proves that the invitations of the gospel are made, and are to be made, not to a part only, but fully and freely to all people; for, although this originally had reference to the members of the church in Laodicea, yet the language chosen seems to have been of design so universal (ἐάν τις ean tis) as to be applicable to every human being; and anyone, of any age and in any land, would be authorized to apply this to himself, and, under the protection of this invitation, to come to the Saviour, and to plead this promise as one that fairly included himself. It may be observed further, that this also recognizes the freedom of man. It is submitted to him whether he will hear the voice of the Redeemer or not; and whether he will open the door and admit him or not. He speaks loud enough, and distinctly enough, to be heard, but he does not force the door if it is not voluntarily opened.
Jesus said, "if any man hear my voice".
Now how in the world can you read this verse and not hear his voice?
I read commentaries on occasion. But like my pastor said many years ago, you often find these writers do not understand the truly difficult passages any better than he did.
I have found that true. You read a verse or passage that is difficult to understand, look it up in a number of commentaries and find that these writers struggle with it as well, and often cannot agree with each other. How is that helpful?
And by the way, many commentators say Rev 3:20 is a universal invitation.
Here's what Matthew Henry said of this verse:
Barnes' Notes says it is a universal invitation:
So, you guys need to quit saying that all theologians say this only applies to the church.
Jesus said, "if any man hear my voice".
Now how in the world can you read this verse and not hear his voice?
.
Those two men got it wrong. It was unto the churches.
What versions do you use?
You have taken Rev. out of context, refusing to see where it says "unto the churches" Also, you have grace and faith backwards bud. That's error, since you like to throw that word around.
Also, no one said "all theologians" say that. You came up with all.
It's really simple, this invitation is unto the churches. It is not a GOSPEL invitation. So you're wrong. So are Barnes and Henry. Weren't you just against using "big men"? Or is it OK if they also misinterpret like you have???
BTW what is the Gospel?
No reputable theologian on either side of the aisle sees it that way.
What a joke, you criticize me for not listening to the writings of theologians, you claim no theologians see Rev 3:20 as a universal invitation, and then when I prove you wrong you simply say these two men got it wrong! :laugh:
How do you know they got it wrong? I think they got it right.
What a joke, you criticize me for not listening to the writings of theologians, you claim no theologians see Rev 3:20 as a universal invitation, and then when I prove you wrong you simply say these two men got it wrong! :laugh:
How do you know they got it wrong? I think they got it right. I think the theologians you study got it wrong. Why is you opinion any better than mine?
If anything, this just shows me that your mind is already made up, and you will reject anyone who does not agree with your presuppositions.
You don't have to have a degree in theology to understand "any man".
See there's your problem Winman- you are listening to man. :tonofbricks:
No, I understood easily that Jesus was speaking to all men. I simply showed you Henry and Barnes because you said no reputable theologian agrees with my view. I would say both Barnes and Henry are reputable.
And preacher4truth, isn't it obvious what scriptures I use?
Why do you keep asking me what the gospel is, don't you know the gospel?
Look, I was dealing with you and Luke, Luke is the one who said no reputable theologian agrees with my view. I proved him wrong.
You insist Rev 3:20 is not a universal invitation, I say it is, and Barnes and Henry agree with me. Oh, I'm sure you could find many Reformed theologians who disagree, what does that prove? Nothing.
I don't have faith and grace backwards. God has revealed the grace that brings salvation to all men. That must come first, you cannot possibly believe the gospel if you have never heard it.
Tit 2:11 For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,
But you must have faith to enter "into" this grace.
Rom 5:2 By whom also we have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God.
An analogy. You can see an airliner at the airport. It has "appeared" to you. But you do not have "access" and cannot enter "into" the plane until you show your ticket.
You cannot receive God's grace as an unbeliever, Jesus said if you have not believed then the wrath of God abides on you.
John 3:36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.
The Bible says you cannot please God without faith, so how can God show you grace or favor until you first believe?
Heb 11:6 But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that] he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.
Calvinism gets everything exactly backwards, they say you must have life to believe, the scriptures say you must believe to have life. Calvinism teaches that God gives you grace before you believe, the scriptures say you cannot have favor with God and that his wrath abides on you until you believe.
The difference between me and you is that I have multiple verses of scripture to support my view, you have none.
This discussion has devolved into an ad hominem free for all. I enjoy a good debate, but this is getting ridiculous. How about we get back to a theological debate & cease the character assassinations?
How does the phrase "Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven" support or disprove either position? If God's will is always perfectly fulfilled, then why would it be different on earth than it is in heaven?
Too often, men will pervert the natural grammatical sense of Scripture in order to defend a particular system of theology. And of course, we all think those who agree with "our" favorite system are highly educated & intelligent, while our detractors MUST be theological neanderthals.:BangHead:
There were no character assassinations whatsoever. Good debate? Yes.
How was this not a good theological debate? It was one of the best I have seen on here. And it ended up correcting an error.
As a matter of fact we had some learning going on here. Threads don't stay on course. No need to shed negative light on something you in your own mind already deem to be so.
By the way, the phrase ad hominem is used to ad nauseam. Ad hominem doesn't apply here.
Who has claimed their sytem as if it were coming from God Himself? Not from me certainly.
:wavey:
I'm not saying that it has not been a good debate, just that there are entirely too many attacks upon the intelligence of one another. If we do not believe that our "system" is of God, then why believe it? I am not condemning any person in particular, just the tone this thread has taken.
I don't go searching out "reformed theologians" for answers. I use dispensational theologians works, arminian, reformed.
Revelation 3, is again, not universal, although the Gospel invitation is a universal invitation in itself. But this is not a gospel invitation. You, Barnes, and Henry have it wrong. The context says this is "unto the churches" not "unto everyone" and "any" is qualified by verse 22 "unto the churches." He is dealing with His Church here, not lost mankind. Look at the context, you won't even need a commentary, it's as plain as day. I think you are starting to come around.
I see now, and it will suffice, that you are admitting now that grace does come first, where in the past you have had it completely backwards. Good job! Grace, then faith. I knew you'd come around if I pounded you with it enough, as in the past you said it was faith, then grace.
Calvinism does not get everything exactly backwards, so don't go painting them with your broad brush as though it is all error. You're just showing your hatred for the theology. Anyhow, God did give grace before Paul believed, did He not? Acts 9? What came first? The extension of grace first, then he believed. Oh boy. That is not backwards friend. This was also the case for Abram, David, Moses, ALL that God called. He first showed favor (grace) then they responded in faith. So, His grace was upon them, whether you like it or not, it's right there. It's simple.
What is the Gospel?
What versions of Scriptures do you use?
Your system contradicts Jesus. You have God giving unbelievers whom God's wrath abides on grace. Gotta tell you, that doesn't make sense at all. You have God giving grace to unbelievers when the scriptures say it is impossible to please God without faith. Again, that is totally nonsensical. You know, the first part of John 3:16 agrees with your view, it says "For God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten son" Now, if that is all it said, it would support your view to a degree. But that is not all it says, after that it says, "that whosoever believeth on him should not perish, but have everlasting life". Well, there you go, this shows only those who believe and have faith receive this grace. But hey, you've got a stack of books written by uninspired men that agree with your view.
I prefer to believe what the scriptures clearly and easily say.
Dude, hang up your accusations and haughty polemic nonsense. You don't know me and you are clearly incorrect on Revelations 3. I don't have God doing anything. You just can't admit His grace was bestowed CLEARLY upon men PRIOR to them having saving faith.
Well, I believe I am correct on Rev 3:20 and I have shown proof that some noted theologians agree. We will have to agree to disagree. The scriptures do not say God's grace was bestowed on anyone prior to faith, are you speaking of 1 Cor 15:10?
1 Cor 15:10 But by the grace of God I am what I am: and his grace which was bestowed upon me was not in vain; but I laboured more abundantly than they all: yet not I, but the grace of God which was with me. This verse does not even mention faith or believeing. You cannot possibly use this verse to prove that faith is given through grace.
In fact, the scriptures clearly say we are saved by grace "through faith". Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God. Yes, we are saved by grace, but it is through faith. Faith is our door to enter into grace, it is our bridge or tunnel that gives us access to grace. Your interpretation is the opposite of what scripture says. If you were correct Ephesians 2:8 should say: For by faith are ye saved through grace; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
No, we have access into God's grace through faith, and this is what the scriptures say. Rom 5:2 By whom also we have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God.I've shown you a verse that says we have access by faith into grace, now you show me a verse that says we have access by grace into faith.
EAR is not talking about what lies on the side of your head. This means understanding.We will never agree. Jesus said "He that hath an ear, let him hear". Well, I've got an ear, so I believe Jesus wants me to hear this. And as has been shown, there are reputable theologians who agree with my view.
I have never said that faith precedes grace, I've said that faith precedes "receiving" grace. That is a huge difference for any discerning person.
Indeed...and notice man ran from God, and it was God that came to man. Not like free willers say, that God would not force himself on anyone.God has been showing his grace to man from the garden of Eden when he made the first promise to send a Saviour.
So what you are saying, because YOU dont understand what the Bible clearly says happens, you will not believe it. I thik I would believe the Bible when it says...In your system, God simply elects some persons to receive his grace and passes by the rest. You even try to say it is unconditional. Well, that's kind of a problem, as it argues God acts without reason. He must have some reason to elect some, and some reason to pass by others. If he has any reason, then it is conditioned on that reason.
Yes I do understand it is a problem with you. You need to pray to God and ask him to help you in this area.For me this is not a problem.
You know, the first part of John 3:16 agrees with your view, it says "For God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten son" Now, if that is all it said, it would support your view to a degree. But that is not all it says, after that it says, "that whosoever believeth on him should not perish, but have everlasting life".
That is a bold face lie. We agree with the Bible. We follow no man, save Christ.But hey, you've got a stack of books written by uninspired men that agree with your view.
I prefer to believe what the scriptures clearly and easily say.