RevJWWhiteJr
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Who IS the Bride ?
The portion of The Church that has not commited adultery against her BrideGroom Jesus Christ.
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Who IS the Bride ?
The portion of The Church that has not commited adultery against her BrideGroom Jesus Christ.
With the current conversation, I don't have time to gather all those passages, but I'll state (in crash course) what every well read Christian should be familiar with and anyone call look them up.
The heavenly hosts, all of them, were created. Nothing was created that Jehovah/Jesus didn't create. Man was the only creation that Jehovah "breathed into the breath of life, and man "became" a living soul." His breath, and in God's image is the reason we are triune. Nothing else is, including the heavenly host (of which the angels are a part). "Angels" were seen in both the Old and New Testaments. They appeared as men, having a physicality even in this world even though we know it to be different than our own. They were also seen with Jehovah and appeared as he did. We can safely assume they were patterned after Jehovah in his creation of them. The "sons of God" (direct creation of)(angels) left heaven and mated with the daughters of men, (Some don't believe this but that is what the scripture says.) and produced offspring. More than once, probably several times. (Not having a spirit, only a physicality, [spiritual body] and life [a soul], they have no "spirit" to pass on to an offspring. That's why the offspring can't be resurrected after death. They have no spirit to return to the body.)
Isaiah 26:14
14 They are dead, they shall not live; they are deceased, they shall not rise: therefore hast thou visited and destroyed them, and made all their memory to perish.
Of Course. Everything stated is accurate. Your just not looking at the whole passage.
Ephesians 5:22-27
22 Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord. 23 For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body.
The husband is head of the wife as Christ is head of the Church (the whole Church, every member of it) and he is the savior of the body. (the whole Church is saved)
24 Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing.
"subject", in authority under, to be submissive to. It says nothing of her "being" submissive. In fact, she has to be told to submit, it doesn't come natural. We are all inherently disobedient, even after salvation.
25 Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it;
Us gents have to be told to love our wives, even as Christ loved the Church, (and gave himself for it. Absolutely.) God/Jesus shouldn’t have to tell us to love our wives, isn’t that why we married them. But again, man (mankind) is inherently disobedient (and a rascal, to put it mildly) by nature.
26 That he "might" sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word, 27 That he "might" present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it "should" be holy and without blemish.
"Might", not will or shall sanctify and cleanse it.
"Might", not will or shall present it to himself.
But that it "should" be holy and without blemish.
There are no absolutes used in the description of Jesus' receiving of the entire Church.
Unfortunately, not all of the Church is without spot or wrinkle, or any such thing. Some, much, or even (I believe from my observation and study) most of the Church has defiled itself with the things of this world.
2 Corinthians 6:17 Wherefore come out from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not the unclean thing; and I will receive you,
I thought we were already “received” by the Lord. We’re saved, we have the Spirit living in us, we’re part of the church which is the body of Christ. Is there no consequences for NOT following the directives of the BrideGroom.
EXAMPLE
1 Corinthians 5:1 It is reported commonly that there is fornication among you, and such fornication as is not so much as named among the Gentiles, that one should have his father’s wife.
2 And ye are puffed up, and have not rather mourned, that he that hath done this deed might be taken away from among you.
3 For I verily, as absent in body, but present in spirit, have judged already, as though I were present, concerning him that hath so done this deed,
(Willful disobedience through the sin of sexual lust, yealding to the temptations of the flesh… the penalty?)
4 In the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, when ye are gathered together, and my spirit, with the power of our Lord Jesus Christ,
(A picture of the Rapture.)
5 To deliver such an one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.
The guilty party will be handed over to Satan by being left behind at the time of the Rapture, and will be killed by the powers that be at the hand of the anti-christ during the great tribulation, so that his spirit may be saved inside the Day of The Lord.
Or is there another time in history when this event can be placed.
No disrespect but you are twisting scripture to fit your view. You are dogmatically saying that certain passages mean something that you cannot possibly prove. You are then taking those passages in which you have formed a personal belief about and added a great deal of speculation and are calling it as if it was true. That is exactly how every cult in the world gets started.
Please define this adultery with Scripture.
This conversation seems to be winding down. Unfortunate. I really enjoy discussing this subject. Unless anyone has another question or two, I will close with this post and check back a few times a week for any remnants anyone may bring up. I will make no comments directly, only bolds and underlines within the passages. You can make your own re-enterpretations.
Revelation 2:22
22 Behold, I will cast her into a bed, and them that commit adultery with her into great tribulation, except they repent of their "deeds".
Hebrews 9:27-28
27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: 28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.
Luke 21:34-36
34 And take heed to yourselves, lest at any time your hearts be overcharged with surfeiting, and drunkenness, and cares of this life, and so that day come upon you unawares. 35 For as a snare shall it come on all them that dwell on the face of the whole earth. 36 Watch ye therefore, and pray always, "that" ye may be accounted worthy to "escape" all these things that shall come to pass, and to stand before the Son of man.
Great quotes, but they have nothing to do with a partial rapture.
Then, what is the escape of Luke 21:36, spoken of by Jesus after giving a detailed description of the great tribulation to four of his twelve disciples? Why the warning, and from what?
And Revelation uses the term by name. Are we to ignore that?
Great quotes, but they have nothing to do with a partial rapture.
And about Revelation. One thing I would like to point out is the acceptance by Pre-Tribbers of an interpretation over the clear reading of plain text.
Traditional Southern Baptist Pre-Tribulationist, which at the close of the 20th century made up the majority opinion of the Evangelical world, (and other denominations sharing the same beliefs) believe Jesus is coming back before the Great Tribulation, (which is correct) and he is taking the entire Church, lock, stock and barrel, back to heaven with him regardless of their degree of individual disobedience. (Regrettably, I’m afraid not).
The passage most often used by Pre-Tribulationists is Rev. 3:10.
Revelation 3:10
10. Because thou hast kept the word of my patience, I also will keep thee from the hour of temptation, which shall come upon all the world, to try them that dwell upon the earth.
This verse, directed to the church of Philadelphia inside the letters to the seven churches of Revelation, makes mention of an hour of temptation, which will come upon the entire world as a whole. Pre-Tribulationists correctly reason that there will only be one time in history when this will be true, The Great Tribulation Period, based on Jeremiah 30:7 and Matthew 24:21, to name just two.
For them this passage teaches that Jesus, through the open door of verse six, will remove the Bride from this world (which for them means the entire Church) through the process of the Rapture, effectively “keeping thee from” (Raptured) “the hour of temptation” (The Great Tribulation).
This is very close to the truth. I agree with the majority of this doctrine as it is portrayed. However, it needs be pointed out, it must be interpreted as such.
1. This verse does not mention The Great Tribulation by name.
2. It does not contain a direct reference to the process of being “caught up“, but an indirect reference that must be deduced. (Interpreted.)
3. No mention of the Bride is made in any direct form.
However correct this teaching to be, it is derived through the interpretation of the reader, not stated by the scripture itself.
My objection to the Church is how it can accept an indirect reference (hour of temptation) and establish doctrine upon it, however correct that doctrine to be, while at the same time ignoring a direct reference to that time or event completely (Great Tribulation). The direct reference in question in this case is clearly acknowledged by the text contained in an adjacent letter addressed to the church of Thyatira.
If one wishes to study what the Word of God has to say concerning the Great Tribulation, one will have to study, at the very least, the three passages mentioning the Great Tribulation by name. Can we agree on this?
The three references are as follows.
1. Jesus himself teaching of it in Matthew 24:21.
2. Jesus himself making point of it in Revelation 2:22.
3. One of the “elders” explaining to John who is to come out of it in Revelation 7:14.
To overlook or ignore any one of these passages is to deny the teachings they contain. They speak for themselves, as does the entirety of God’s Holy Word.
Revelation 2:22
22. Behold, I will cast her into a bed, and them that commit adultery with her into great tribulation, except they repent of their deeds.
This is the verse of scripture my friend could not use as a Pre-Tribulation passage although it teaches conclusively that there will be an event which will result in someone avoiding the Great Tribulation Period. Someone is not going into Great Tribulation.
If the teaching of an avoidance of that time is not a confirmation of Jesus’ description of an escape of it, I don’t know what is. This would only agree with the teaching of a “caught up” event which takes place prior to the Great Tribulation, and that is the current definition of the Rapture. Therefore, found in these passages is the scriptural documentation of the Pre-Tribulation Rapture.
Revelation 2:22
22. Behold, I will cast her into a bed, and them that commit adultery with her into great tribulation, except they repent of their deeds.
At the same time however, the entrance into the Great Tribulation is documented by the same passage through a connecting phrase making entrance into that terrible time by the same group being addressed undeniable.
Revelation 2:22
22. Behold, I will cast her into a bed, and them that commit adultery with her into great tribulation, except they repent of their "deeds".
Only the presence of the condition makes escape from The Great Tribulation a possibility, it is not a forgone conclusion as traditional Pre-Tribulationists have convinced each other to believe.
Both teachings exist simultaneously in the same passage with the use of the connecting phrase forever linking them together. I do not understand how the Church has missed the presence of them in the scripture.
The passage in the Rev you are using is speaking to a church that is not saved. it is not speaking to those who have been saved. The saved do not practice sin.
Whosoever is born of God doth not commit (practice) sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,
Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God.
And such were some of you
There is no partial rapture.
[SIZE=+0]The Luke passage as well as the Rev passage are both speaking about getting saved. That alone is what makes us worthy. [/SIZE]]
[SIZE=+0]The scriptures say this; Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God. [/SIZE]]
[SIZE=+0] [/SIZE]
[SIZE=+0]No amount of good works makes us worthy; [/SIZE]]
[SIZE=+0]But we are all as an unclean [thing], and all our righteousnesses [are] as filthy rags; and we all do fade as a leaf; and our iniquities, like the wind, have taken us away.[/SIZE]]
[SIZE=+0] [/SIZE]
[SIZE=+0]Even our best is like a filthy rag. Only the work of Christ in us satisfies God. [/SIZE]]
[SIZE=+0] [/SIZE]
[SIZE=+0]We are spotless because of what the Lord has done, not because of what we do. Only the blood of Christ washes us, not good deeds.[/SIZE]]
All the dead "in Christ" will be raised, those alive will be changed [and] both [will be] going with the Lord,
every believer who dies before the rapture is one of those.
For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the "dead in Christ" shall rise first]
Then we which are alive [and] remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord. ]
There is no partial rapture. The Rev passages you are trying to use are for those lost in the church, not the saved.
They can't be lost. Besides the opening statement of Revelation that Jesus is addressing "servants",,,
Revelation 1:1 The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, "to shew unto his servants" things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John:
,,,there is an identifier of salvation contained in each of the letters to the seven churches. He is repremanding all but Philidelphia for unbecoming or disobedient behavior. Not calling them to salvation. Besides the identifiers, we have the reoccuring theme of "I have somewhat or a few things" against thee.
Jesus does not a "few" things against the world. He has only one. Unbelief. That's what makes them lost. All other sins will just enhance their punishment for their unbelief when their physical life comes to an end.
You keep going back to this old "they can't be lost". Many in the church are lost.
Not a few but many, infact some churches are totally lost. My friend they are lost! Not everyone , but in the passages you are pointing to many are lost..
The reason that you are having some much trouble understanding scripture is because you have formed a doctrine that is contrary to the scripture and are trying to make the word of God conform to your belief. Just believe scripture and you will see that you belief is false...
Also you forget that the letters are to the Churches Pastors. Thye are to warn those in the church to hear what the Spirit says.
Whosoever is born of God doth not commit (practice) sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
The passage in the Rev you are using is speaking to a church that is not saved. it is not speaking to those who have been saved. The saved do not practice sin..
Whosoever is born of God doth not commit (practice) sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.