This is an exegetical question for my Landmark brethren who argue that it is wrong to refer to all the redeemed as a 'church'. Let me state ahead that I am not interested in debating but rather to hear and think through your responses. So thanks ahead of time.
Ephesians 5 appears to speak of those Christ died for as the 'church' (vs. 25). This appears to teach that all of the redeemed that Christ died for in some sense could be referred to as a 'church'.
Some, such as B.H. Carroll, have argued that this will be a 'church' on the last day as all the redeemed will in fact assemble literally. However, the use of 'church' in Ephesians 5 cannot be viewed as simply something that will exist in the future. Notice the use of present tense verbs used in reference to that church (ie 'is' subject; vs. 24)). So whatever this 'church' is exists presently and cannot be pushed into the distant future. Your thoughts? (BTW, don't feel that you have to be guarded with your statements as I am only looking for general responses and not interested in debating this)
Ephesians 5 appears to speak of those Christ died for as the 'church' (vs. 25). This appears to teach that all of the redeemed that Christ died for in some sense could be referred to as a 'church'.
Some, such as B.H. Carroll, have argued that this will be a 'church' on the last day as all the redeemed will in fact assemble literally. However, the use of 'church' in Ephesians 5 cannot be viewed as simply something that will exist in the future. Notice the use of present tense verbs used in reference to that church (ie 'is' subject; vs. 24)). So whatever this 'church' is exists presently and cannot be pushed into the distant future. Your thoughts? (BTW, don't feel that you have to be guarded with your statements as I am only looking for general responses and not interested in debating this)