The Archangel
Well-Known Member
So the translators used foreknew instead of chose for what reason when "chose" was readily available to them?
Because translation is not primarily concerned with explicating meaning from the original text. Translation is primarily concerned with passing on--as close as possible--the original text into a new language.
As such, the translators looked at the component parts of the word προγινώσκω and made what amounts to a transliteration (though it is not strictly speaking or technically speaking a transliteration).
Paul's usage dictates the meaning, not the translation.
So, the translators did their jobs. But, as I said earlier, that is only part of the equation. Whether a translation or the original is read, meaning still must be mined from the text (encompassing syntax) and application must be made too.
A summary of the process of preaching (or teaching) a text expositionally is this: This is what the text says, this is what the text means, this is how the text applies.
All that translators do is help with the first step. It is not in their purview to attach meaning to the text itself--that was the author's job...and in this case, Paul, the author, is quite clear that his usage means chose.
The Archangel