What else does foreknowledge mean except to know something before hand? How does God come to know something before it happens? Two options:
1. He makes it happen through his active decree. Example: God knew he would provide redemption for mankind by sending Christ to earth. He actively sent Christ to earth. He foreknows it because HE DOES IT.
2. He foreknows or foresees that it will happen and doesn't hinder it, he permits it through his permissive decree. Example: God knew Israel would rebel against Jesus and crucify him if they didn't see, hear, and understand the gospel truth. God keeps Israel blinded from the gospel temporarily so they remain in rebellion and crucify Jesus. He permissively allows Israel to commit this grievous sin in order to accomplish redemption. He foreknows it because he knew THEY WOULD DO IT but HE PERMITS IT TO HAPPEN.
Thus we have both God's active decree (that which HE himself does by HIS own active agency) and his permissive decree (that which he knows will come to pass and chooses not to hinder).
One uses the concept of God foreknowing and permitting while the other is about what God actively predetermines. See the difference?
I understand now what you are saying. But it doesn't make sense to me.
If all God's works are known to Him from the beginning of the world, that is, before anything that is created, was created, why are the sinful actions of men left out of His works?
Please explain the following if you wish:
Known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world. Acts 15:18
In Romans 9:17 God tells me that He raised up Pharoah for His purpose. Certainly this is the work of God, known to Him from the beginning. How is it that it can be said that God merely knew who and what Pharoah would be and do, when God says He raised him up?
Now, I want to contrast your example of what you think is a permissive decree with the text that your example comes from:
Acts 4
27For of a truth against thy holy child Jesus, whom thou hast anointed, both Herod, and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles, and the people of Israel, were gathered together,
28For to do whatsoever thy hand and thy counsel determined before to be done.
My questions:
1. Where in the text is the idea of a permissive decree?
2. Where in the text is the idea that God foreknew what they would do, and then decreed He would permit them to do it?
3. What was done according to "whatsoever thy hand and thy counsel determined before to be done"?
4. What is meant both by "thy hand" and "thy counsel" ?
5. What is meant by determined? What was determined according to the text?
I ask the questions because I want to hear how you answer them. I am not seeking information as though I haven't read this text before. The text seems simple and plain to me. So, I will give my answers:
1. There is no mention in the text of a permissive decree.
2. There is no mention in the text of foreknowledge in the sense that God looked into the future, saw what would happen, then decided to let it happen.
3. What was done was the trial and crucifixtion of Jesus.
4. "thy hand" means God was active in the accomplishing of His "counsel" "thy counsel" is God's purpose, or decree, which He purposed in Himself.
5. Determined means that God decided before hand. What God did determine was "whatsoever" they did in the trial and crucifixion of Jesus.
I, therefore, conclude in agreement with the 1689 LBCF which says concerning God's decree:
Although God knoweth whatsoever may or can come to pass, upon all supposed conditions, yet hath he not decreed anything, because he foresaw it as future, or as that which would come to pass upon such conditions.
( Acts 15:18; Romans 9:11, 13, 16, 18 )
Chapter 3, article 2