Skandelon
<b>Moderator</b>
Fredrick asked me this question in another thread and when I refused to give him a "yes or no" response and explained to him the difference between God's desire and his Sovereign unchanging decree, he mocked and ridiculed me as if I just didn't understand and as if I believed man is more powerful that God. He also implied that EVERYONE else understands his question without having to make the distinction between God's pleasure/desire and his sovereign purposes. Here is the question:
Can you all explain to him the error of his unwillingness to acknowledge the difference between God's desires and his sovereign unchanging decrees, because clearly he cannot hear it from me. Thanks
Are you saying that if God desires something (including the salvation of an individual!) that a mere mortal human can stymie or otherwise cause His failure?
Can you all explain to him the error of his unwillingness to acknowledge the difference between God's desires and his sovereign unchanging decrees, because clearly he cannot hear it from me. Thanks