Analysis of 1 John 5v1
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one that loveth him that begat loveth him also that is begotten of him.
paV o pisteuwn oti ihsouV estin o cristoV ek tou qeou gegennhtai kai paV o agapwn ton gennhsanta agapa kai ton gegennhmenon ex autou
I have been asked by a participant on this thread to weigh in here, since I am a Greek teacher and a translator. So I’ll analyze this verse, but before doing so I want to point out that I almost never participate in the Cal/Arm discussions on the BB. So I’m weighing as a favor to a friend, and don’t plan to spend much time here, though I’ll answer any questions about my Greek analysis.
First of all, consider the substantival use of the participle (using the participle as a noun) for “to believe”, o pisteuwn. It is best to just think of this as a noun, since it is after all the subject of the sentence. Brooks and Winbury say, “The participle, like an adjective, may be used in the place of a noun or other substantive. The participle itself then functions as a noun” (Syntax of NT Greek, p. 130). Daniel Wallace doesn’t mention this particular verse, but comments on a similar structure: “The aspect of the present participle can be diminished if the particular context requires it. Thus, for example,o baptizwn in Mark 1:4 does not mean ‘the one who continually baptizes” but simply ‘the baptizer.’ Indeed, it cannot mean this in Mark 6:14, for otherwise John would be baptizing without a head” (Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, p. 620—love that humor!).
I won’t take time to explain the current debate in Greek circles on verbal aspect and aktionsart, which is pretty complicated (and my son is much more up on that than I am). But I do believe that here, the tense and verbal aspect of the present participle (Is the action continuative? Is it present?) have little play. If John were a 21st century American writing in English when he wrote 1 John, he would have simply said, “Every believer…,” since there is no Greek noun meaning simply “believer.” You have to use the participle for “to believe” in koine Greek.
To relate this to the current discussion, I don’t see how 1 John has anything to do with the order of salvation. I think John would be surprised to read this thread! He was simply saying, “Hey, if someone is a believer in Jesus as the Christ, they’ve been born again!” And of course it is God Who did it, but looking at the grammar, there is nothing in this verse that will prove that regeneration comes before faith.
I don’t think there is a need here for me to comment on the verb tenses for “born again.” To me they are irrelevant to the argument on the order of salvation once the substantival use of the participle is understood—the participle as noun.
) on being seperated from God due to sin. This "dead" soul can, and does, hear when God calls.