After reading the thread on sign gifts in the church today I reread Acts 2 and verse 8 has always struck me as evidence that the tongues practiced today are not the same as the tongues of Pentecost. Either the gift was a gift of hearing in their own language unintelligible speech (a gift I've never heard claimed) or a gift of the speaker to speak a language not formally known to them but a real language which existed in that day among the list of ethnicities in verses 9-11.
As this is the entry of the gift of tongues into the church would this definition of tongues not establish the practice and reality of the gift and contradict the claims of current Christians who speak tongues in a language which exists in no earthly ethnic group.
I hope I am not being too controversial in my first post but I really would like to read other views on this subject.
Jamech
As this is the entry of the gift of tongues into the church would this definition of tongues not establish the practice and reality of the gift and contradict the claims of current Christians who speak tongues in a language which exists in no earthly ethnic group.
I hope I am not being too controversial in my first post but I really would like to read other views on this subject.
Jamech